Questions I put to Prof. Samuele
Bacchiocchi
he has
ever since avoided to answer.
I
herewith submit some questions on a pivotal point of exegesis I hope you will
favourably consider to put to Professor Samuele Bacchicchi when he visits you.
They
are understandable and matter of fact questions which Professor Bacchiocchi
might recognise not too strange to answer.
As far
as his time allows, Professor Bacchiocchi is well acquainted with my views and
criticisms. I therefore have limited my questions to just this one point, the
meaning of the Greek word “opse” in Matthew 28:1, Professor Bacchiocchi wrote a
book, “The Times of the Crucifixion and Resurrection” on in which he treats on
the subject.
I
present the questions as though I ask them in person, so as not to perhaps
embarrass you. (Emphasis - with capital letters - is mine.)
Preliminary
Question: Professor Bacchiocchi, Do you realise that the meaning you attach to
this word “opse” in Matthew 28:1, is in disagreement with men like Tyndale,
Webster, Lightfoot, Young and Knoch - and Dionysius of centuries before them?
Professor
Bacchiocchi, I today have four questions for you on your interpretation of the
phrase in Mt.28:1, “In the end of the Sabbath”.
First
Question: Professor Bacchiocchi, How can you claim “NUMEROUS evidences” (“The
Time of the Crucifixion and Resurrection”, p. 49, 84 et al.) that Matthew uses
the sunrise day-reckoning and not the sunset day-reckoning in chapter 28:1
while you fail to present a SINGLE example of Matthew's use of the sunrise
reckoning - except 28:1 itself?
My
Second Question is: Professor Bacchiocchi, You claim the Greek word “opse” in
Mt.28:1 should be understood to mean “after”, and not “late” as in the King
James Version and Revised Standard Version. In “The Time of the Crucifixion and
Resurrection”, your statement reads as if A.T. Robertson is saying, “Later
Greek authors, like Philostratus, use the word “opse” in the sense of 'after',
like “opse toutohn” - 'after these things'“ .
The
question is, 1, Does A.T. Robertson simply say that “Philostratus shows
examples where “opse” has the sense of 'after', like “opse toutohn” - 'after
these things'“, - as you assert he does?
(Robertson
says, “Philostratus shows examples where
“opse” WITH THE ABLATIVE has the sense of 'after', like “opse toutohn” - 'after
these things'“. - Bacchiocchi keeps Robertson's consideration of the Ablative,
mum.
If the
use of “opse” in Mt.28:1 is regarded as a case of the Ablative, the KJV
supplies the perfect example, “In the end of the Sabbath”!
The
example given from Philostratus of “opse toutohn”, is translated “superfluities
(to the games)” in the Loeb Classical Library, and contextually has precisely
that meaning. “These things” that should be reckoned mere “superfluities”, were
made such a fuss of one might think they are the games!)
Professor
Bacchiocchi, the question further is,
2,
Does A. T. Robertson say, “later Greek AUTHORS, like Philostratus” - as you
assert he does : the plural?
(Robertson
says, “Philostratus shows examples”; “Philostratus uses it (the word “opse”)
also in the sense of ...”. Robertson speaks of NO OTHER author.)
The
question further is, 3, Does A. T. Robertson say, “Philostratus use(s) the word
'in the sense of 'AFTER' “ - as you assert he does?
(Robertson's
exact words are, “Philostratus uses it (“opse”) also in the sense of LATE ON” -
directly the opposite of what Bacciocchi pretends Robertson says!)
My
Third Question is: Professor Bacchiocchi, In your 4th paragraph on page 87 of “The
Time of the Crucifixion and Resurrection”, you state, “...the term “opse” is
used in the New Testament and in CONTEMPORARY Greek literature as meaning not
only “late” but also “after”“.
I take
it you mean with “contemporary Greek literature”, first century “Greek literature”
- that is, “Greek literature” “contemporary” with “New Testament” “Greek”.
Now,
Professor Bacchiocchi, please supply us with JUST ONE example from this Greek
of the incidence of the “use”, of “opse”, with the “meaning ...(of)”after”?
Will it be Mt.28:1, perhaps?
Then,
Professor Bacchiocchi, please explain to us how you “... have ... (done)
justice to Matthew 28:1” by applying to the word “opse” in Mt.28:1, your, and
the alleged meaning from Philostratus of TWO CENTURIES LATER than the time of
the New Testament's composition?
Then,
Professor Bacchiocchi, please explain to us how your 'conclusion' is lauded
with such startling nonchalance, that,
1, To
say that “opse” means “late in / on the Sabbath” in Mt.28:1, is an “ignoble and
baseless attempt” that “lacks both Biblical and historical support”, and
3,
that your meaning for “opse”, “after”, (p.60d TCR) is “clearly support(ed)” by “the
cumulative witness of the Gospels and of history”?
3. Do
you also consider “ignoble and baseless” the “attempt” to translate “opse” with
“late in” of the Authorised and Revised Standard Versions (to mention but two)?
My
fourth question for you, Professor Bacchiocchi today, is on your use of Walter
BAUER'S interpretation of the phrase “In the end of the Sabbath” in Mt.28:1.
In The
Times of the Crucifixion and Resurrection, p. 51-52, you assert, “The same
explanation ... 'AFTER the Sabbath, as the first day of the week was dawning',
is given in several standard Greek lexicons of the New Testament. Walter
Bauer's lexicon, for example, points out that “opse” is “used as an improper
preposition with Genitive [meaning] after, (“opse sabbaton”) after the Sabbath
... Bauer gives several examples of this usage ('after') including one ...
where the following phrase occurs: “later than the hour decided upon”“.
The
question in the first place must obviously be, Professor Bacchiocchi, How can
you say Walter Bauer “gives several examples of this usage 'AFTER'“, when the
phrase that occurs in the very example you quote from him, reads, “LATER than
the hour decided upon”?
But,
the question in the second place, Professor Bacchiocchi, for any person who has
not checked your references, is less obvious. It is this: How can you say
Walter Bauer “gives SEVERAL examples of this usage 'after'“, when he gives BUT
FOUR examples, and ALL four of “opse” meaning “LATE”, and none but Mt.28:1
ITSELF, as an example of “opse” meaning “after”?
The
question in the third place, Professor Bacchiocchi, is: Where does Bauer ever
state or imply that “opse” means “after ... as ... day ... was DAWNING”?
(While
Bauer favours “after the Sabbath” in Matthew 28:1, he would think of “opse”
with regard to Mt.28:1 as representing the “EVENING”. He defines “opse”, a “LATE
hour of day”. Bauer NEVER defines “opse” in terms or concept of the early
morning “dawning”! Neither does A.T. Robertson, or any “Greek author” of any
period of
history!)
My
last question, Professor Bacchiocchi, to you this day, is: Kindly tell us
Robertson's final conclusion on this matter?
(“It
is a point for exegesis”, says Robertson, “not for grammar, to decide. If
Matthew has in mind just BEFORE SUNSET, 'late on' would be his idea; if he
means AFTER SUNSET, then 'after' is correct.” Robertson allows the “morning” or
“DAWNING”, no consideration! The time of day involved revolves around “sunset”,
according to Robertson!)
Ad lib
question:
Prof.
Bacchiocch, how do you want me or us to regard your view, which you expressed
in “End Time Issue 73”,
“...
were the Gospels' writers alive today, I have reason to believe that they would
appreciate help in correcting some of their inaccuracies. Incidentally, some of
the inaccuracies are very glaring. For example, the Synoptic Gospels place
Christ's crucifixion on the day after Passover (Nisan 15), while John on the
actual Passover day (Nisan 14). It would be nice if we could ask them to
reconcile their differences and give us the exact date of the Crucifixion.”
Bacchiocchi
endorses this (R.W. Olson):
“To these could be added the numerous discrepancies in the NT. For
example, the Gospels do not agree even on the date of Christ's crucifixion. The
Synoptic (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) tell us that Jesus was crucified on Nisan
15, that is, the day after Passover, while John places the crucifixion of Nisan
14, that is, Passover day.”
Dear
Prof. Bacchiocchi, How in God's Name dare you claim “inaccuracies” in the
Gospels of which “some are glaring”! You say John places Christ's crucifixion “on
the actual Passover day” - plainly untrue, because he says “it was the
Preparation of Passover”. This day, say you, “the Synoptic Gospels place on the
day after Passover” - while they say it was the very day “the passover should
be slaughtered”!
It shows, Samuele Bacchiocchi is a non
con poop.
Gerhard
Ebersöhn
Private
bag 43
Sunninghill
2157