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Matthew 28:1 is an Undividable Unit

 

Presenting:

"END OF SABBATH" VS "DAWN"

by Ralph Woodrow, Missing Dimension, Whistler’s Tune, 2001.

– Consideration will follow after full quote –

We now come to another scripture that some use as a major proof text to support the idea that Christ’s resurrection was on the Sabbath (Saturday) – Matthew 28:1:

"In the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre…"

The context mentions a great earthquake; an angel descends from heaven, rolls back the stone from the tomb, and announces that Jesus has risen from the dead! The women quickly go to tell the disciples the glad news, and then actually see the risen Christ and worship him! All of these things took place "in the end of the Sabbath," we are told, and not on Sunday morning at all!

One writer, whose booklet on this subject has been around for many years, states:

The women came to the tomb "late on the Sabbath."

The stone was rolled away "late on the Sabbath."

The tomb was empty "late on the Sabbath."

The angel said Jesus had risen "late on the Sabbath."

Since all these things happened "late on the Sabbath," he reasons, "Is it not the silliest kind of nonsense to say that the resurrection took place on Sunday morning?"

A Sunday morning resurrection is not silly for the following reasons:

If it was late on the Sabbath when the women went to the tomb and found it empty, why do all the other Gospel writers place their visit to the tomb early in the morning on "the first day of the week"?

If it was late on the Sabbath when the women discovered the stone was rolled away, why would they be asking the next morning: "Who shall roll us away the stone from the door of the sepulchre?" (Mark 16:2,3)

 

If it was late on the Sabbath that the women found the tomb empty, why would they be taking spices to anoint the dead body the next morning, knowing it was not there?" (Lk 24:1).

If it was late on the Sabbath that the angel told the two Marys to "go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen" (Matt. 28;7), why would the disciples be so unconcerned that they calmly waited until morning before going to check it out? The fact is, they "ran" to the tomb as soon as they heard the report! (John 20:4)

If it was late on the Sabbath that Mary Magdalene visited the tomb, found it empty, and actually saw and worshipped the resurrected Christ, why would she be weeping the next morning at the tomb and asking the supposed gardener where the body had been placed? (John 20:1, 11, 15).

If it was late on the Sabbath that the women discovered the empty tomb, why do the other accounts link it with dawn, and why does even Matthew 28:1 say it was "as it began to dawn"? Dawn is when the sun is coming up, not when it is going down!

How can we explain the inconsistent statement "in the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week"? There is a very simple solution, so simple that it’s a wonder that it’s often been overlooked! That solution is that the words "in the end of the Sabbath" were not describing when the women went to the tomb, but when the tomb was sealed and guarded, in the previous verse.

Without changing the wording in the least, the entire passage can be brought into harmony with every other verse by simply placing the period in a different place. To do this is certainly not out of order, for punctuation was not a part of the original text. With this simple change, these two contradictory clauses ("end of the Sabbath" vs "dawn") are no longer linked together as being the same thing, and Matthew’s account comes into immediate alignment with the other Gospels.

The change would look like this:

66 So they went, and made the sepulchre sure, sealing the stone, and setting a watch in the end of the Sabbath. CHAPTER 28:1.  As it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

Thus, the simple movement of the original period, which was never a part of the original text to begin with, brings this text into total harmony with the other gospel accounts.

Consider:

"In the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre…"

The context mentions a great earthquake; an angel descends from heaven, rolls back the stone from the tomb, and announces that Jesus has risen from the dead! The women quickly go to tell the disciples the glad news, and then actually see the risen Christ and worship him!…

Says Woodrow: … All of these things took place "in the end of the Sabbath," we are told, and not on Sunday morning at all!

 

The fallacy here is generalisation. Woodrow alleges everybody who disagrees with the traditional interpretation ‘tells us’, “All of these things took place "in the end of the Sabbath" and not on Sunday morning at all!” But not all of these things took place "in the end of the Sabbath", and Matthew makes that clear enough. What happened on Sunday morning, of course will become clear when the four Gospels are compared. And what is eliminated by such comparison must then have happened on the Sabbath Day. The mutual factor in all the Gospels is the women, and their actions of the Sunday. Specific of Matthew are the events surrounding the opening of the grave. These things could not have happened after the women’s actions, nor simultaneous with it. So the time-indications found in Matthew, necessarily are applicable to the angel’s deeds. And those time-indications apply to:in the end of the Sabbath”, and not Sunday morning at all!

 

Consider:

The women came to the tomb “late on the Sabbath”.

This is not entirely true, as anyone who has read The Lord’s Day in the Covenant of Grace should be able to see. The women did not come in the sense that they arrived at the tomb; they only “set off to see” to be exact and literal.

But what Woodrow it seems deliberately doesn’t say, is what the text at this place says, namely, that “at this very moment – <kai idou>, there was a great earthquake”! Therefore, in fact,

The stone was rolled away "late on the Sabbath"!

And the tomb for that very reason,

was empty "late on the Sabbath".

But, just as surely and just as obviously for sheer common sense, the angel did not, late on the Sabbath, say, that Jesus had risen. He must have “told the women” that – “the angel answered the women” exactly that – on the morning of the First Day of the week, naturally, although not stated in words. The women, were not at the grave on the Sabbath.

Since all these things pertaining Jesus’ resurrection happened “late on the Sabbath”, and on the morning of the First Day “the angel said Jesus had risen "late on the Sabbath"”, “is it not the silliest kind of nonsense to say that the resurrection took place on Sunday morning?” Indeed it is!

 

A Sunday morning resurrection is not silly”, says Woodrow, “for the following reasons:

If it was late on the Sabbath when the women went to the tomb and found it empty, why do all the other Gospel writers place their visit to the tomb early in the morning on "the first day of the week"?

If it had not been for the false and confused reasons the question is posed, one could have echoed, yes, why? But who said they “found it empty”? If they went is not saying they arrived, or saw, or found the tomb empty. Then what brilliant question is it to ask: “(W)hy do all the other Gospel writers place their visit to the tomb early in the morning on "the first day of the week"?” Is it not common sense, then Matthew would place ‘his’ visit to the tomb, also in the morning on "the first day of the week"? And would not the angel now see fit to make the women understand events and circumstances? What could be objected to his informing – “answering” – the women on the issue?

But there lurks a few silent misapprehensions in this question, for it asks, “(W)hy do all the other Gospel writers place their visit to the tomb early in the morning on "the first day of the week"?”, as were there just the one visit of all the women together. And it asks, “(W)hy do all the other Gospel writers place their visit to the tomb early in the morning on "the first day of the week"?”, as if at no other time (of night) there could have occurred another visit or visits.

 

For these reasons just the idea of a Sunday morning resurrection is silly, as it is for more reasons contained in the next objection:

If it was late on the Sabbath when the women discovered the stone was rolled away, why would they be asking the next morning: "Who shall roll (for) us away the stone from the door of the sepulchre?" (Mark 16:2,3).”

One woman “discovered the stone was rolled away” – Mary! And she, “ran”, and told the disciples. Not “women”. And the Gospel of John did not place this visit to the tomb, “early in the morning on "the first day of the week"”, but “on the First Day of the week while being early darkness still” <proh-i skotia eti ousehs> – which is (late) evening before ‘late night’ – not long after the First Day had begun with sunset. It could not have been early in the morning because by then just about every disciple had paid the tomb a visit.

It is reasonable though to ask, “(W)hy would they be asking the next morning: “Who shall roll (for ) us away the stone from the door of the sepulchre?””. The main difficulty with this clause is the way it is translated. Properly translated it would have shown the type of question it is – that it is more an expression of surprise at the magnitude of the feat than a worry over a prospective task: “Who (on earth) will roll the stone away for us!?” Remember Mary earlier had observed how the stone lay removed from the door, and she already had told the women. The women were as perplexed as surprised as they approached the grave downhill <epi to mnehma> and saw the heavy door stone must have been flung “away” from the door uphill. This clearly then had been a visit to the grave later on that night – a visit of several women this time. No fleeing from the tomb this time, but pensive wonderment. And this time an encounter with two angels and even conversation with them! Not the same visit of the evening before was this! By now, it was “pitch dark”, “thick morrow” <orthros batheohs> – says Luke. 

 

For these reasons just the idea of a Sunday morning resurrection is silly, as it is for more reasons contained in the next objection:

If it was late on the Sabbath that the women found the tomb empty, why would they be taking spices to anoint the dead body the next morning, knowing it was not there?" (Lk 24:1).

If not for the false premise of the question it would not have been asked. Mary did not find “the tomb empty” when she “saw” it the first time. As soon as she “saw the stone taken away” lying at one side, she “ran”. She at first impression assumed the body had been stolen, and shared her fears with the others. But she obviously afterwards must have collected herself and she and her friends in good faith must have decided to finish with their preparations of the Friday afternoon. The women still must have believed the body was intact inside the grave, or they would not have come to anoint it, despite all fears and suspicions. They obviously did not “know it was not there”. It only proves Mary did not have a look inside the grave when she, with her earlier approach, first saw it opened. Luke therefore records the second visit to the grave, Mary’s solo sighting according to John 20:1-2 having been the first.

 

For these reasons just the idea of a Sunday morning resurrection is silly, as it is for more reasons contained in the next objection:

If it was late on the Sabbath that the angel told the two Marys to "go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen" (Matt. 28:7), why would the disciples be so unconcerned that they calmly waited until morning before going to check it out? The fact is, they "ran" to the tomb as soon as they heard the report! (John 20:4)

Again, if it were not for the false premises and preclusions of the question it would not have been asked. Everybody hurried to and fro, that Sunday morning. Who would not? But who says it was late on the Sabbath when the angel told the women, "go quickly, and tell his disciples that he is risen"? Not Matt. 28:7”! Who says the angel toldthe two Marys”? Not “Matt. 28:7”! That it was “the angel” who “told”, is sure; that he “told” the women, also. That he “toldwhen the thing that happened, happened, namely, “on the Sabbath”, is certain; that he “toldwhat had happened, “that he is risen”, most certain. Yet nothing was “told the two Marys” because the angel answered all “the women” (verse 5), except the one absent. Mark 16:9 informs us Jesus, “early <proh-i> on the First Day of the week, appeared, first, to Mary”. So He could not have appeared to Mary Magdalene where she was accompanied; He appeared to her where and while she was alone, and that incident John vividly pictures in 20:11f. Jesus there appears to Mary while she thinks He is the gardener (having come on duty – which should be with sunrise). This is the first and also the earliest of Jesus’ appearances. When Jesus therefore appears to the several women on their way from the grave to Jerusalem (Matthew) it must have been a still later time on the Sunday morning, that is, it must have been some time after sunrise. Matthew doesn’t tell us that – we must deduce it from the other gospels – from John 20:11f and Mark 16:9f – NOT from John 20:1-2, NOT from Mark 16:1-2, and NOT from Matthew 28:1!

 

What about Mark 16:2 then? It tells of yet another visit of the women to the grave – a return-visit, which the women undertook in between Luke’s visit and Matthew’s to ascertain their findings of the night. Who could blame them? This visit therefore was earlier than sunrise (John 20:11f and Matthew 28:7). This visit was just before actual “sunrise” <lian proh-i anateilantos tou hehliou> – the (English) “dawn” of “very early sunrise”, and therefore later than Luke’s time at “thick morning” / “mid darkness” <orthros batheohs>.

The only problem with these different visits by different persons at different times during the night-part of the First Day, is us, who want to ascribe the resurrection of Jesus to each or all of them as one, while the simple truth is He at or during NO visit to the tomb, rose from the dead. Because He had risen from the dead the day before, “late in the Sabbath”, when the two Marys “went to go see the tomb” but obviously were frustrated in their intention!

 

So the protest, “why would the disciples be so unconcerned that they calmly waited until morning before going to check it out?”, is irrelevant, is false, and not at all provoked by the basic truth Jesus had been raised from the dead “in the slow hours of the Sabbath’s afternoon the First Day of the week approaching” – Mt.28:1, exactly.

 

Again, if it were not for the false premises, preclusions and presumptuousness of the questions, they would not have been asked,

If it was late on the Sabbath that Mary Magdalene visited the tomb, (She didn’t visit it – she went to see it but failed to see it.) found it empty, (She didn’t find it or found it empty – these things happened on ‘First Day’ expeditions to the grave.) and actually saw and worshipped the resurrected Christ, (That only happened on Sunday morning after sunrise – first appearance.) why would she be weeping the next morning at the tomb and asking the supposed gardener where the body had been placed? (John 20:1, 11, 15).

Because all her previous excursions and endeavours to find her Lord, disappointed.

If it was late on the Sabbath that the women discovered the empty tomb, (Same objections.) why do the other accounts link it with dawn? Not one Gospel nearly or remotely “link it” – the resurrection – “with dawn”. The nearest to dawn visit though – that of Mark 16:2 – was the third of Mary and second of the two Marys and Salome – the making sure visit.

(A)nd why does even Matthew 28:1 say it was "as it began to dawn"? Matthew mentions his time in connection with the resurrection and not in connection with the visit he mentions. And he does not say "as it began to dawn", but literally “in the very being of light / sun / day” <epi-fohs-k-ous-ehi> – “afternoon”!) “Dawn is when the sun is coming up, not when it is going down!” <Epifohskousehi> is “when it is going down” – from noon till sunset when the First Day (Sunday) were to begin.

 

How can we explain the inconsistent statement – of translations – "in the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week"?

By translating correctly “afternoon” instead of “dawn”. Then accept the inevitable, that tradition is wrong, and the Sabbath, and not the First Day, is thereby invested with a meaning and honour it previously only held prophetically and by promise – the honour and significance of becoming and of being the Day of the Lord’s resurrection from the dead.

 

 

 

 

 

The Proposed Solution!

 

There is a very simple solution”, it is claimed, “so simple that it’s a wonder that it’s often been overlooked!

Fools rush in where angels fear to tread!

That solution is that the words "in the end of the Sabbath" were not describing when the women went to the tomb, but when the tomb was sealed and guarded, in the previous verse.

That solution” will soon prove to be an illusion, and no more than the promise of fools’ gold.

Without changing the wording in the least”, it is claimed, “the entire passage can be brought into harmony with every other verse”.

 

But what is proposed in this thesis is impossible, even by the English words, for the change would directly contradict the time of day which Matthew 27:62 gives for the sealing of the grave, which is, “in the morning” – the Greek opposite parallel of “afternoon”, namely <epaurion> – <epi>, “in”, <aurion>, “orient” / “sunrise” / “morning” or “after-morning” – the extension and positive parallel of Mark’s <anateilantos> – <ana> plus <telloh> – “up-coming” / “rising (of the sun)” or pre-sunrise morning; “dayspring” in Luke 1. Matthew 27:62 gives the post-sunrise morning for the sealing of the grave, so it could not have happened “late on the Sabbath”.

Or the Jews and Pilate wasted all their day and defeated their own objective, to get the sealing done as soon as possible!

Without changing the wording” is even more impossible in the Greek, for then it should have read: <… sfragisantes ton lithon meta tehs koustohdias opse sabbatohn. Tehi de epifohskousehi, eis mian sabbatohn …>, in stead of reading:  <… sfragisantes ton lithon meta tehs koustohdias. Opse de sabbatohn, tehi epifohskousehi eis mian sabbatohn …>. And <eis mian sábbaton> should have read <miai sabbátohn> - leaving out <eis> and changing the case of <mian> from Accusative to Dative and the case of < sábbaton > from Accusative to Genitive <sabbátohn >.  Even <kai idou> – “at that very moment”, will have to be moved from after the main time-indicating phrases, to before it. (Quickly thought of changes in “the wording”: 6!)

Also the parties concerned – “Mary the Magdalene and the other Mary” will have to be changed to either only Mary Magdalene or the several other women; and the angel from one to perhaps two; and from coming down from heaven to sitting inside the tomb, etc. etc. Which makes absurd the whole notion of “simply placing the period in a different place”.

 

To do this is certainly out of order, for punctuation was not so much a visible part of the original text, as intrinsic to its nature.

With this simple change” one’s ignorance of the intelligence of the Greek language is farcically understated.

 (T)hese two contradictory clauses ("end of the Sabbath" vs "dawn")” glare like phosphoric eyes from the gross darkness of six centuries of stubborn refusal to admit and rectify the human error of that holy man who so rendered them first, Tyndale – who himself declared that his part in Christ be taken from him had he but in one instance translated against his conscience. While the Roman Catholic Church has excommunicated and anathemised, persecuted and killed Tyndale for his translation of the Bible, that Church has capitalised on this unfortunate translation of Tyndale’s as were he a saint by papal announcement.

(T)hese two contradictory clauses ("end of the Sabbath" vs "dawn")”, must be “linked together as being the same thing”, by supplying the literal meaning the word <epifohskousehi> at that point in history had had, the meaning of “afternoon” – its simplest and most easily understood English equivalent … “and Matthew’s account comes into immediate alignment with the other Gospels”.

 

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