No ‘explicit command’ 

 

Elaine Nelson:

Since there is not a shred of scriptural or historical evidence showing that the Gentiles had been observing the Sabbath, and there is nothing in the NT telling them that they must now observe it, why do we add to Scripture and ignore that "it would only provoke God's anger now, surely, if you imposed on the disciples
the very burden that neither we nor our ancestors were strong enough to support?"

David Conklin here: there is also no explicit command for the Gentiles to not keep the Sabbath. The fact that they were doing so as late as the 5th century tells us that they understood that they were still supposed to keep the sabbath. 

 

GE: 

I won’t bother answering on the Acts 15 passage or “The fact that they were doing so as late as the 5th century tells us that they understood that they were still supposed to keep the sabbath”, now. (The era before 130 AD, ‘the apostolic era’ only counts for the Christian.) Therefore, for now:

 

Re: David Conklin, “there is also no explicit command for the Gentiles to not keep the Sabbath.”  

GE:

I think there is. However, let us see if there is a “command” or an “explicit command” or ‘commandment’ for the patriarchs before “the giving of the Law”, ‘to keep the Sabbath— there is no such thing— literally! Gn2:2-3 gives history; not ‘command’. 

 

Yet who will be so foolish as to reckon God’s making of the Sabbath by the act of deed of his ‘rest’, ‘sanctification’, ‘blessing’, ‘finishing’, of the Seventh Day, couldn’t be of meaning for his creation brought to perfection on and by God’s ‘making’ of the Seventh Day? Is that not ‘command’ nor ‘commandment’? If not, for what take the trouble to mention the Seventh Day if it has no bearing on the six days of God’s creating as ‘law’ unto it?

 

God’s works of his rest of the Seventh Day in themselves are the, if not ‘explicit’, then implicit nevertheless equally valid and binding command and Commandment: “Thou shalt remember the Sabbath Day to keep it holy .... FOR IN IT GOD .....”.  

 

“For in it God ....” is as present in Gn2:2-3 as it is present in Ex20:8-11, and therefore The Commandment of God, is as present in Gn2:2-3 as it is in Ex20:8-11. “In it God”, worked, resting; and resting, worked. God, taking trouble to “In the Sabbath DO, DEEDS” of His own Sovereignty and Power, is, ‘Command’ and ‘Commandment’ of God. God, is Commandment; God, is enough of ‘Command’ for everlasting.  

 

For what reason may not the acts – acts of rest – of God in and through Jesus Christ speak of ‘Law’ for themselves and in themselves? Then: Could God better have ‘capatalised’ upon his own works than by having raised Jesus from the dead “In the Sabbath Day” thus having “finished all the works of God”, “on the Seventh Day”?

 

One thing must be made clear though. The Christian believer boasts in God (as Paul has warned he should) – not in the works of God even. God in his Presence is God in his Law; it is God in his works who is God as Law, so that God shall be worshipped, and not the works of God shall be worshipped. The creation (earth and heaven and what in them is) is not worshipped; nor is God worshipped in creation; God is worshipped in His Presence: in His Glory; in the face of Jesus Christ.  Just so with regard to the Sabbath: The Christian believer boasts in the God of the Sabbath – not in the Sabbath of God. God in his Presence is God in his Sabbath; it is God in his Sabbath who is Lord of the Sabbath, so that God shall be worshipped, and not the Sabbath of God shall be worshipped. The Sabbath (and all its “good for man”) is not worshipped; but God in the Sabbath is worshipped, for God is worshipped in His Presence and in His Glory in the face of Jesus Christ: in resurrection from the dead or nowhere ever! 

 

It is Unbelief – not faith – that insists on ‘explicit command’ outside the speaking and doing and speaking through doing of God Himself.  In fact, it is legalism and legalists who always moan: ‘Give us command’; ‘Show us the law for Sabbath keeping to heathen’ – as would they then have believed! Whom are they trying to bluff? Only themselves! ‘Give us command’; ‘Show us the law for Sabbath keeping to heathen’ is the unbeliever’s pleading to be brought into captivity again, to be enslaved again under the yoke of the Law, like Israel who threatened Moses to take them back to Egypt.

 

I do not herewith say that the New Testament does not have ‘direct / explicit command’ that the Seventh Day Sabbath should be remembered and kept holy; it has.  But the Christian, the believer, does not need the Law (small letter or capital letter) any longer; Christ has released him from the Law by having Himself become God’s Law to his disciples. He took off the load of the Law’s yoke and put upon his slaves, His own yoke of righteousness and righteous doing.  

 

The Jews will have the Law but not Christ; they won’t serve the Lord. But Christians, must not serve two lords. Believers do not share Christ’s honour with the Law. The glory of the Law which indeed is glorious (as Paul confirms), to Christ’s disciples has become “like no glory at all” in comparison with “The Glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ”.  God’s Glory is found in the face of Jesus Christ; not in the Ten Commandments. The ‘Moral Law’ has not and cannot vie for God’s glory or it must bereave Christ of His glory and honour and morality. Because what has the Law ever earned? Has it ever saved anyone? But what has Christ earned (morally)? Has anyone ever been saved other than Christ? Therefore to God alone all glory for evermore through Christ our Lord only.

 

Sabbathworshippers assuming the Law over themselves are hipocrytes bragging their own righteousness before God. Sundayworshippers begging the Law over themselves are hipocrytes bragging their own righteousness before God no less!  Insisting on the letter of the law for Sabbathkeeping as if not there already or as if of no consequence anyway, to both sides mean they think themselves above the Law.

 

A person who prays for being a sinner, willingly places himelf under the Law and under the condemnation of the Law because he places himself under Christ. It is only under Christ that the true Christian might learn to be a real Sabbathkeeper. Sabbathfinders Sabbathkeepers; never Sabbathkeepers Sabbathfinders.

 

 

 

Re: 

Elaine Nelson:

Since there is not a shred of scriptural or historical evidence showing that the Gentiles had been observing the Sabbath, and there is nothing in the NT telling them that they must now observe it, why do we add to Scripture and ignore that "it would only provoke God's anger now, surely, if you imposed on the disciples
the very burden that neither we nor our ancestors were strong enough to support?" 

 

“..... not a shred of scriptural or historical evidence showing that the Gentiles had been observing the Sabbath .....”

 

GE: 

That is what Elaine Nelson says, not the Scriptures; and that is obviously contrary ‘every shred of scriptural or historical evidence’—

 

In this case the ‘evidence’ is ‘scriptural AND historical’ because the two kinds of ‘evidence’ are both found in AND according to the Scriptures, being one and the same ‘evidence’.

 

For example: ‘Historically’ in the sense of chronologically the GOSPELS are the most before hand possible evidence the Christian Church observed the Sabbath long after Paul had written his Letters to this Church. Were there any chance the Sabbath had given way to or was sharing with Sunday in Christian worship and observance, without any shred of doubt the ‘evidence’ must have shown in the Gospels because of the historical de facto fact they were written after the other documents of the same source and time.  

 

In the Gospels is found but one ‘kind’ of Sabbath observance by and in the apostolic Church: That of the Seventh Day Sabbath, indisputably because undisputed in that Community, its time or its Scriptures. I further maintain that the same is true from, and of, all the rest of the NT documents.

 

There is simply not a shred of Scriptural or historical evidence showing that any Christians, Jew or Gentile, had not been observing the Sabbath until about 130 AD, or that they had been observing Sunday or had been sharing their observance between both the Sabbath and the First Day of the week. ALL Christianity – Roman Catholic, Protestant, Seventh Day Adventist, Sundayworshipping – et al – has been PROVING THAT ever since the debate was begun (with Justin Martyr)—, except for instances of sheer ignorance and ineptness in historical or Scriptural knowledge, like yours here demonstrated, dear Elaine Nelson – no bad feelings; I know what it is to be indoctrinated. All of us spend our lives nurturing indoctrinated convictions of one kind or another. Well, like your “not a shred of scriptural or historical evidence showing that the Gentiles had been observing the Sabbath” theory. It is as easy as pulling on the trigger to make a shot in the dark; it is just as dangerous as easy though.

 

The very historical fact the Church made change from the Sabbath to Sundayworship on a single presumption — the presumption Christ resurrected on the First Day of the week—, PROVES, not a shred of evidence shows that the Gentile-believers had not been observing the Sabbath or had been observing Sunday too or alone, AT LEAST for any ‘scriptural or historical evidence’ before or beyond the audacity appeared in space and time that Christ rose on the First Day of the week.  (This said, is not said to deny PAGANS “superstitiously observerved” (‘peratehreoh’ in Gl4:10) Sunday to pay homage to their “no-gods” of “the first principles of the world” – ‘stoicheia tou kosmou’, even before Paul had written his Letter.) 

Therefore, “..... why do we add to Scripture and ignore that "it would only provoke God's anger now, surely, if you imposed on the disciples the very burden that neither we nor our ancestors were strong enough to support?"” which ‘very burden’ was that of “circumcision of the flesh”— not the ‘rest’ and ‘relief’ and ‘recuperation’ / ‘reviving’ experienced as blessing that flowed from God’s blessing of his Sabbath Day with the view to Jesus Christ through resurrection on it, so that it “remains for the People of God” whomsoever and since New Testament re-establishment and institution! (Hb4:8-10)  In fact, in Acts 15 the Sabbath IS, respecTED and paid due attention for having been the day for, and of the devotional ‘reading of Moses’— the Law and Scriptures of the CHRISTIAN CONGREGATING AND WORSHIPPING COMMUNITY. The council’s decisions were being read to and before, THIS, Sabbath-congregation Body of Believers. Sunday? Not a sign of!

 

Then, with all respect, Elaine Nelson, why do you make mention to this resolution regarding circumcision, while debating Sabbath observance under the early Christians? Is it honest exgesis to create the impression the council concluded upon the Sabbath and Sabbath’s observance under Christians while in fact they concluded upon the ONLY (‘Scriptural’) disputed practice at that (‘historical’)  time among Christians, namely, circumcision?   What has the Sabbath got to do with any of it? What had the Sabbath had to do with any of it? Not you only, but every Sandadarian I have answered in my life, play this same foolery on honest with God Christians, and persuade them away from Christ and his truth. What a shame on Christianity!

 

Topping it all Christianity without exception I know of yet, persists in its false apologetics for the sake of Sundayworship, and invariably call the taboos decided upon at the Council of Jerusalem, prohibitions against Old Testament practices and typology. Yes, best or worse of all is, virtually all Christendom has fallen for this falsity, the Sabbath-believing Christendom included.  Truth is though, every one of those no-no’s was from paganism. The Christian leaders decided we as free men under Christ alone shall not burden fellow Christians with anything whatsover the Word of God does not teach a believer in Christ to believe and do; we shall only prohibted the devices of pagan idolatrous religion that don’t belong in either Old-Testament faith or New Testament faith.  In fact, the Council did not even come to the fore with a direct interdict against circumcision, the ‘issue’ that caused the convention! Then Sundaydarians conspire against its peace-accord and modus operandi and from them call for a sword against the holy of God his Sabbath Day.

 

How can that which a man delights in be a burden unto him?

 

 

Kevin Riley: Date: Wed, 06 May 2009, wrote:

“All references to Sabbath services are to situations where either Jews are meeting in a synagogue, or 'God-fearers' are meeting on Sabbath.  We do not have a reference to a solely Christian worship service that mentions the day.”

 

GE: 

This _perhaps_, might have been true, have you said: We do not have a reference to a solely GENTILE worship service that mentions the day.  But think of the Colossians 2 incidence of Christian Sabbaths’ celebration practice; there is not the slightest indication in the Letter the Community of the Body of Christ’s Own consisted of any but Gentile Christians. (Any idea – it is clear from this document itself – Jewish ‘false teachers’ were involved in some secret agenda to pervert this practice of the Colossian Christians, is baseless.)

 

First: Do you find this day of ours, or have any, found at any one time in history, a Christian Congregation not of mixed elements, believers and believers? Then why conclude no CHRISTIAN gathering for worship wholly Christian, occurred on the Sabbath in first century Christianity, whether all members were Jewish or all members were Gentile?

 

Then remember the assemblings recorded throughout in the Gospels, were recorded as the acts of the New Testament Church by the New Testament and Christian Church, for the New Testament and international and inter-racial, single Body of the Followers of Jesus Christ. The Gospels better than any Epistle or the Acts,  mirror situations where the disciples of Christ (mixed with the enemies of Christ) congregated in and for worship of the only true God, in synagogues or the temple or in nature or in homes, wherever: as the Church of the day and dispensation OF THE WRITING OF THE GOSPELS, “'God-fearers', meeting on Sabbath”; AND NOT ONCE FOR SPECIFIC OR MENTIONED REASON SPECIFICALLY ON THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK.

 

The ‘situation’ and ‘situations’ of Christian gathering together for worship of the only true God through and in Jesus Christ is EVER implied in the Gospels as it had been during the ministry of  Christ, as during the ministration of the Holy Spirit after, alike.  For this very phenomenon exactly, the same reality came to exist in the rest of the NT: All references to services of worship in Congregation are to Sabbath gatherings and services, whether to situations where Jews were meeting in a synagogue, or non-Jewish 'God-fearers', or Jews and Gentiles integrated: They exclusively THUS by congregating and worship services, met on the Sabbath Day: NOT IN ONE INSTANCE ON THE FIRST DAY OF THE WEEK. 

 

We today THROUGH SHREWD MANIPULATION OF THE TEXT have reference to but one case of meeting and service that “mentions worship service” where ostensibly ‘the disciples congregated’ “on the day” now known as ‘Sunday’, then, known as the First Day of the week— one glaring and gross, ghostly and ghastly falsehood, in Acts 20:7.

 

 

 

Kevin Riley:

The best argument for the Sabbath is the one of silence.  Every departure form Judaism incited opposition from the Jewish believers.  Galatians mentions the fuss over abandoning circumcision.  At the time most of the NT was written the Christians were regarded as a sect of Judaism, so both Jews and Jewish Christians would have felt obliged to defend the Sabbath as they
did circumcision.  That no record exists of a controversy over the Sabbath is a good indication there was not one.  Then you have the records of the C2nd where Sabbath is no longer observed.  Then you get to the C4th where it is in most places, and is considered to be a Christian tradition - as it still is by the Orthodox, who have no problem referring to Saturday as 'the Sabbath' and who have had special readings for the Sabbath since about the C4th.  The change occurred in what some have referred to as 'the silent years' between the death of Paul and the first writings of the Fathers. 

 

GE: 

Again, as far as any time-‘historic evidence’ beyond 130 AD for or against Sabbath or Sunday observance by Christian worshipping-assembling is concerned, it is of no concern to what the Scriptures have to say about the Sabbath’s ‘loud and clear’ presence in the NT Church and Scriptures.

 

Only things argued “according to the (first century) Scriptures”, matter. As concerning these Scriptures – the New Testament Scriptures: – First:

There is no such thing as “The best argument for the Sabbath is the one of silence” in them. The supposed ‘argument from silence’ either way – for or against –, from whichever point of view bears no weight in discourse about the Christian validity of the Sabbath Day.

 

It is plainly untrue the NT is silent concerning the Sabbath or the celebraion of it in the NT Church. On the contrary, the NT is far more informative about the Seventh Day Sabbath of the LORD your God than all the Old Testament books put together— not only quantitively, but qualitatively. In the very day of his triumph by resurrection from the dead that Christ is made Lord of the Sabbath Day, the Christian Church enters into “a keeping of  the Sabbath Day” prepared for it since the creation of the world.  “A keeping of the Sabbath Day remains for the People of God therefore .....” (‘ara’):— that “Jesus had given them rest” in the fulfilled and completed salvation of God’s Rest “in Him”. (Hb4)

 

All of the New Testament is the singing of the praises of Him our Mighty Warlord, “for He .... in the greatness of (His) excellency .... hath triumphed gloriously”— upon which great Truth God has founded his Sabbath Day and even made great change in the Law ingraved in stone for ever by his own finger, leaving out altogether his mighty works of creation for reason that man shall remember his Sabbath Day by his still mightier and greater work of Passover, that his People through it shall remember to keep holy God’s Sabbath.  God by the cloud of His Presence led His People out of the land of their slavery “into His Own Rest as God in his own”, and “gave them rest.” “And the cloud was Christ.”—  “That ye may know what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe according to the working of his mighty power which He wrought in Christ when He raised Him from the dead and exalted Him at his own right hand in heavenly glory, far above all principality and power, and might and dominion, and every name that is named not only in this world, but also in that which is to come: and hath put all things under his feet ..... the last enemy destroyed is death ..... The sting of death is sin; and the law the strength of sin: But thanks to God who gives us the victory (over death, sin and Law) through our Lord Jesus Christ ..... whom He gave to the Church which is His Body, the Head over all things, the all in all fulfilling Fullness of God.”  

 

Remove the Resurrection from under the Sabbath Day and the New Testament is rather quiet about it; place the Sabbath firmly upon the finishing works of God’s rest in Christ, and the pages of the New Testament seem too few and small for God’s Sabbaths’ eulogy in it.  

 

 

 

 

Kevin Riley: 

“That no record exists of a controversy over the Sabbath is a good indication there was not one.” 

 

GE:

No controversy over the Sabbath in the New Testament?

Pages and chapters in the New Testament are filled with controversies over the Sabbath. But they were never controversies over the Sabbath and Sunday; no record exists of a controversy over the Sabbath versus the First Day of the week in fact; its absence is deafening. To just think such existed is impossible. Because they raged about Jesus Christ and the Sabbath Day. No event ever occurred that might have gendered controversy over Sabbath versus First Day of the week ..... unless! That no record exists of a controversy over the Sabbath and Sunday, is final indication that there was no ‘unless’, and the only ‘unless’ that might have changed the status quo in the Gospels and would have caused viscious controversy, and filled its volume from Gospel to Gospel, is the resurrection of Jesus from the dead on a First Day of the week.

 

But the pages and chapters in the New Testament that are indeed filled with controversies over the Sabbath, all, dealt with Jesus’ healing, liberating and life restoring mission and ministry, so throughout having pointed forward to the conclusive and ultimate redeeming and saving triumph of Christ in resurrection from the dead – naturally and faithfully according to the expectancy He before his death had consistently created, that the triumphant bringing together of divine promise and oath would be concluded and fulfilled and God’s Rest would be entered upon on the Seventh Day of God’s making, of God’s blessing, of God’s hallowing, of God’s finishing, and of God’s Rest --- as the creation story, and the Fourth Commandment, all Scriptures, and his own life had indicated, promised, assured and gauranteed.

 

Now imagine Christ instead rose from the dead on the First Day of the week! And think what controversies between the Sabbath and the First day of the week would have filled the New Testament Scriptures! But we know the actual condition of it; that there are none in any of its books. Therefore what does it tell us? It tells us Jesus must have arisen on the Sabbath Day ---- PLAINLY.

 

The only possibility that could have given rise to a controversy over the Sabbath versus the First Day of the week, was Jesus’ resurrection from the dead. That no record exists of a controversy over the Sabbath versus the First Day of the week, is final proof Jesus’ resurrection from the dead was not on the First day of the week, but on the Sabbath Day!

 

 

Kevin Riley: 

“Galatians mentions the fuss over abandoning circumcision.” 

 

GE: 

“.... the fuss over abandoning circumcision”?  I cannot recall Galatians exactly about that— Who made the ‘fuss’? Paul? Yea, Paul made a ‘fuss’ all right. 

 

We Christians of easy faith, we just believe every told us. Was it “over circumcision” though, Paul made his fuss? Paul makes two really disturbing statements in Galatians 4 and 5. The first one is, 4:11: “I am afraid of you lest I have bestowed upon you labour in vain.”  If that were the case, the Galatians would still have been lost and never saved; more serious things could not get. Paul’s second statement was, 5:2-4: “If you have yourselves circumcised, I Paul tell you, Christ shall profit you nothing! For I testify again to everyone that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosever of you are justified by the law.” 

 

Was it about circumcision; or does Paul speak about and against works righteousness – earning and sealing one’s ‘salvation’ with own merit? 

 

We must be careful how we understand these statements of Paul.

 

In the first place Paul meant in both statements a path of no return; chose anyone that path, he had chosen for the destiny of the lost and wicked; he has sealed his fate.

 

Paul had Timothy circumcised; was Paul the author of Timothy’s eternal damnation?

 

“If you have yourselves circumcised”, Paul tells the Galatians, “Christ shall profit you nothing; Christ is become of no effect unto you”. He obviously supposes speaking to un-circumcised people. But Paul also says: “I testify to everyone that is circumcised”. That would have included himself. Is there anybody for whom Christ meant salvation, left? If Paul has made a ‘fuss over circumcision’, he is condemning every man alive or dead, circumcised and not circumcised. So Paul makes no ‘fuss over circumcision’.

 

Therefore, No!  Paul writes about self righteousness, earning one’s salvation with one’s obedience to the law; the law of God;  in fact, the law of God that also enhanced the law of circumcision.  Paul least of all makes ‘fuss over ABANDONING circumcision’.

 

Am I saying circumcision is irrelevant or that Paul uses circumcision merely as a figure of speech?  I do not say it and I do not mean it. I am convinced Paul in Galations 5 has in mind the circumcision of the flesh, according to the Law, ‘literally’. Call it ‘the Jews’ circumcision’ if you like; that’s the thing I believe Paul wrote about; don’t misunderstand me on this.  I say though, Paul is not teaching the abandonment of this circumcision, and that the abandonment of circumcision or the holding fast to this circumcision here, contextually in Galatians 4 and 5, is not at issue.

 

All right, to calm everybody down. I do not believe in circumcision. So please don’t accuse me of teaching circumcision for a Christian is mandatory or profits him in any way. Let’s keep to the subject; it is not what I or you believe now; it is about what is going on in Paul’s Letter to the Galation Christians.

 

What is going on? What is going on concerns the two most serious denouncements Paul has made in any of his Letters! So we cannot play down the seriousness and the practical implications of Paul’s statements and think we have found the answer to our questions and say: O, all Paul says is, Christ has redeemed you, you ar no longer under the Law, relax, take it easy, “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.”  To interpret Paul in this way is plain sacriligious! He never meant anything he says in this Letter in such a way. The person who take this path chooses the dishonest and only another self-righteous way of escape from the real implications of Paul’s verdict.

 

Paul’s statement, “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love” is not one of indifference or happy go lucky Christianity. This saying of his a most secure trap he sets for the wicked who thinks he can fool around with the Christian Faith. For whomever thinks he can outwit God in judgment.  You wont get away from this one: “For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.” 

 

That takes us back to chapter 4:8-11.

 

Am I permitted to do this? To take us back to chapter 4, verses 8 to 11, at this stage in Paul’s Letter? Well, only read on, chapter 5 where we now are, verses 6-9, and ask again, shall we at this stage go back to 4:8-11 for further clarity? Alright then, 5:6-10: Let us read verse 5 as well: “We through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith, for in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.  Ye did run well; who did hinder you that ye should not obey the truth? This persuasion cometh not from Him that calleth you— a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump. I have confidence in you through the Lord (though), that ye will be none, otherwise minded : but he that troubleth you shall bear his judgment, whosoever he be.”  

 

What does 4:8-11 say? Let’s read verses 6-7 as well:

“Because you are sons, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Father, Father— wherefore you are no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ”. 

 

Does it not sound much like this:

 

“We through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith, for in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love”? 

 

Paul in fact has said, “Are you so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are you now being made perfect by the flesh?” (3:3) 

 

Now, verse 8, chapter 4: “Howbeit then when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods, but now, after that ye have known God – or rather, are known of God – how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?  Ye observe days, months, seasons, years.”

 

Chapter 5, verse 7-9:  “Ye did run well; who did hinder you that ye should not obey the truth?   This persuasion cometh not of Him that calleth you.   A little leaven leaveneth the whole lump.”

 

Chapter 4 again, verse 11:  “I am afraid of you, lest I have bestowed upon you labour in vain.”

 

Chapter 5, verse:  “I have confidence in you through the Lord (though), that ye will be none otherwise minded : but he that troubleth you shall bear his judgment, whosoever he be.”

 

According to chapter 5 (7-9), the Galatians were persuaded away from obedience to the truth.  According to chapter 4, the Galatians return back to the weak and beggarly elemental ‘no-gods’, and “desire again to be in bondage” under them.

 

In chapter 4 Paul reckons his efforts for the salvation of the Galatians was wasted; in chapter 5 he says the little leaven might have spoiled the whole lump already.

 

In chapter 4 Paul after his sigh of despair in verse 11, “I am afraid of you, lest I have bestowed upon you labour in vain”, begins his reproofs to steer the Galations back on track. Full of hope that the Galatians will heed his warnings, Paul as if with a sigh of relief, expresses his faith they would, “I have confidence in you through the Lord (though), that ye will be none otherwise minded.”

 

So now: will it be legitimate for me – and the enquirer into what the ‘fuss’ actually was – after 5 verse 6, to return to chapter 4 verse 8 and on to again try and see: What was the ‘abandoning’; what the true and real error?

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The song of Moses and of the Lamb is the poem and melody the Composer of has been God in Christ all along— the Psalm for the Sabbath Day the Mighty One of Israel conducts still in the Christian Community of Believers.