Joseph bought linen
THURSDAY CRUCIFIXION
By
JX
THURSDAY CRUCIFIXION commemoration on Thursday April 13, 2006, Perfectly
coincides with Passover this year, just as in 33 AD.
COMMON SENSE
If I tell you that we had visitors stay with us 3 days and 3 nights, and left
as the sun rose on the 1st day of the week, what would you conclude?
You would conclude that visitors came sometime Thursday before Sundown, stayed
Thursday night, Friday, Friday night, Saturday, Saturday night and then left
early Sunday morning at dawn.
3 Days:
Sometime Thursday before Sundown
Friday....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday....12 hours (6 to 6)
3 Nights
Thursday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Friday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
This time frame would not have to be a specific 72 hour period, but it would
have to be a minimum of 60 hours + additional hours.
This we believe is the explanation of the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ.
Jesus died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon. Passover was that evening. Thursday itself
was called “The Preparation Day”. The 7 Day feast of Unleavened Bread began at
Sundown that evening with a Passover meal . That same sundown Thursday evening
began their Sabbath–High–Holy Day rest. This was not their Saturday–Sabbath
rest, which starts on Friday evening. This was their High–Holy–Day–of–Rest, the
feast of Unleavened Bread.
In Mark 15:42 it says, “And now when the even was
come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath (of
Unleavened Bread).
Here we have Mark calling 2 different days, days of “preparation”. One the day
before Jesus died, and one on the day that Jesus died.
You argue: “this Sabbath was their 7th day Sabbath.”
Not so, because on this day, the day Jesus died, Joseph of Arimathaea still had
time to go to the markets and purchase fine linen (Mark 15:46) It was something (Joseph) could not do
if Passover had already started the evening before, for it ranked as High a
Sabbath as the 7th day Sabbath, and there could be no marketing....no buying and
selling.”
So Mark himself clears up the issue by letting us
know that the Last Supper was a special time designated by Our Lord to eat the
Passover with his disciples. The actual national Passover was the next evening.
Our Lord Himself clears up this issue, when it is recorded in John 13:29 that
Judas left the Last Supper ,and many thought he was going out to purchase
something.
If this were the national day of Passover throughout
We see then that this was a special Last Supper Our Lord was sharing with His
disciples on Wednesday evening.
This investigation into Mark’s Gospel would apply to Matthew’s and Luke’s
account as well. The Synoptic writers wrote of Christ’s designated Passover,
while John wrote of the actual national day of the Jewish Passover.
A CHOICE
As with all Scripture interpretation, one can accept or reject these
deductions. But they are sound and are also supported by Scripture.
Satan would love to keep the Church confused in as many issues as possible.
Only the Holy Spirit can enlighten truth to individuals.
The Lord has the final say in this matter. He said that He was in the heart of
the earth for 3 days and 3 nights, and Scripture records His resurrection on the
first day of the week, Sunday. That leaves no other conclusion than that Jesus
was crucified on a Thursday.
HIGH–HOLY DAY SABBATH
You see, Passover is tied to a specific date, Nisan 14. Since it is tied to a
specific date, it can occur on any day of the week, as the calendar rotates
year after year.
For instance, we all were born on a specific date, our birthday. But the DAY
within the week of our birthday changes each year, as the calendar rotates. Our
birthday can be on a Monday one year, then next year a Tuesday etc. etc. It is
the same with Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread. It occurs on whatever
weekday the 14th of Nisan falls.
The year Our Lord died, it fell on a Thursday evening. Thursday–DAY was the day
of Preparation. Our Lord died 3 hours before the Passover Meal (at the exact
time they slaughtered the lambs).
The Passover meal was in three more hours.
That is why Joseph of Arimathaea and Nicodemus craved the Body of Jesus from
Pilate (Mark 15:43), so that they could anoint and bury Jesus’ body, before the
High Holy Sabbath–Feast, which would begin in a few hours.
This Sabbath was not the Saturday–Sabbath which begins on Friday evening. This
was the High Holy Day Sabbath, which that year fell on a Thursday evening and
Friday–DAY. In other words, the HOLY DAY Sabbath (Passover–Unleavened Bread)
was followed by their 7th day Saturday–Sabbath, thereby having a double–Sabbath,
back–to–back.
7th DAY SATURDAY– SABBATH
The Jewish people have their day of rest on Saturday. They begin their Sabbath
the night before on Friday evening. It was that way in Biblical times and is
still that way today. Every Friday evening a candle is lit, prayers are said
and no work is done till sundown Saturday evening. By Saturday evening the
Sabbath is officially ended. The next day, Sunday, is called “ the 1st day of
the week.”
Here is what Matthew 28:1 says: [ KJV Authorized ]
“In the END of the Sabbath, AS IT BEGAN TO DAWN toward the first day of the
week (Sunday), came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”
It doesn’t get much plainer than that . Jesus arose Sunday ( AFTER the Saturday–Sabbath
was ended) on the 1st day of the week.
Matthew 12:40 tells us that Jesus had to be in the earth for 3 days and 3
nights:
“For as Jonas was 3 days and 3 nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of
Man be three days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth”.
Our Lord did not speak in “idioms”. He always spoke with mathematical accuracy
and truth. Backing up 3 nights, we know then that Saturday night, Friday night,
and Thursday night, Jesus was in the heart of the earth.
Backing up 3 days from Sunday, we know that Jesus had to be in the grave
Saturday, Friday and part of Thursday before Sundown.
There you have it.
Matthew 28:1 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus arose on
Sunday.
Matthew 12:40 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus was in the
grave 3 days and 3 nights.
John 19:31
is Absolutely 100% accurate when it tells
us that the Sabbath immediately following Jesus death was the Sabbath of their
High Holy Day, the Feast of Unleavened Bread (Exodus 12:15–17), and that this
was not to be confused with their 7th day Sabbath.
Luke 24:21 is 100% accurate when it states “and besides all this, today is the
third day since these things were done”. (Sunday Luke 24:1 and 24:13)
IN CONCLUSION
Jesus died on Thursday afternoon at EXACTLY the time that the Passover Lamb was
slain. Jesus is our Passover Lamb.( 1 Corinthians 5:7) At that same moment the
veil of the temple was torn in two, thus pulling down the religious system in
order to approach God personally for the forgiveness of our sins. We could now
come boldly to His throne of mercy and grace and receive the pardon one seeks
from a contrite and sincere heart.
(Hebrews 4:16 and Psalm 51:17)
Jesus proved He was our Passover Lamb when He came from the Mt. Of Olives on a
donkey on Palm Sunday , Nisan 10.....the day the lamb was to be identified as
the Passover Lamb:
“In the 10th day of this month they shall take to them every man a lamb...and
ye shall keep it until the 14th day of the same month: and the whole assembly
of the congregation of Israel shall kill it in the evening.”
The lamb was to be separated, just as Jesus kept Himself at
Jesus not only identified Himself on Nisan 10 (fulfilling the prophecy of
Zechariah 9:9), but He separated Himself to the confines of
COUNTING BACKWARDS
How do we know that Jesus’ Triumphant entry into
Let’s say we have a “Passover Calendar”, much like our “Advent calendars”.
These calendars mark DAY ONE on the actual anticipated day itself. Counting
backwards in anticipation would be like this:
Passover...day one ( in this case, a Thursday night)
Wednesday...day two
Tuesday....day three
Monday...day four
Sunday...day five
Saturday...day six (in perfect agreement with John 12:1)
GOOD THURSDAY
That would make Sunday the 10th; Monday the 11th;
Tuesday the 12th; Wednesday the 13th; and Thursday the 14th of Nisan, the
Crucifixion of Jesus Christ, our Passover Lamb.
Yes, Jesus our Passover Lamb was crucified and died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon,
just as the High Priest slew the Passover Lamb. Jesus was laid in His tomb
before Sundown, still reckoning it to be Thursday. He was in the heart of the
earth for 3 days and 3 nights and rose gloriously on Easter morning, Sunday
morning .
The Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark and Luke)
present a time–sequence that appears different from John’s. Why?
Mark’s Gospel reads:
“And the first day of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover, His disciples
said unto Him, ‘Where wilt Thou that we go and prepare that Thou mayest eat the
Passover?’
Mark 14:12 “and they made ready the Passover” Mark 14:16
This 14th Chapter appears to be a contradiction of the other Gospel accounts,
especially John’s Gospel which parallels Christ’s crucifixion at the same time
that the Passover Lamb was being slain in the Temple. (John 19:14)
Since the Gospels cannot contradict one another, we must start with absolute
fact and then, by deduction, explain the reason for the apparent discrepancy.
First of all, we have already established the fact that Christ rose on Sunday.
We also have already established the fact that according to His own words
(which out weighs any other witness) He was in the heart of the earth 3 days
and 3 nights. So in conclusion, we have already established the fact that
Christ was crucified on Thursday, before the Passover Meal took place
throughout all
We can only deduce that the Lord requested to share the Passover meal with his
disciples a day earlier, knowing that He would not be with them on the morrow.
This Wednesday then was their own particular day of preparation...their
singular evening of unleavened bread.
The “they” that Mark refers to is Our Lord and His disciples only.
Each one of us has done the same thing...celebrate a birthday, anniversary or
holiday at a more convenient time under certain circumstances. This is
definitely not out of the ordinary.
We must always keep in mind that Our Lord is also Lord of the Sabbath (Holy
Day). Mark 2: 27, 28
Hezekiah himself recalculated the time of Passover due to unusual
circumstances. “and the thing pleased the king and all the congregation”
2 Chronicles 30:4
Our Lord and His disciples were righteous; they were not legalists.
The disciples knew full well the malicious attempts of the chief priests,
scribes and elders, and they wouldn’t hesitate in the least to cooperate with a
more discreet seder.
This deduction is a fair estimate. For if Mark 14 is confusing, Mark 15 sets
the record straight.
THURSDAY CRUCIFIXION
By JX
Yet another cauldron of misconceptions
refuted by Gerhard Ebersöhn
GE:
Three Days and Three
Nights
All these Scriptures are
in PERFECT AGREEMENT in every respect :
And yes, they have everything to do with the “three days prophecy”
BECAUSE :
1A) HERE BEGINS the NIGHT and the FIRST of the “three days”, “according
to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
wherein Jesus ENTERED IN in “the Kingdom of my Father” (Jesus’ Jonah’s
descent to hell) :–
Mk14:12/17; Mt26:17/20; Lk22:7/14; Jn13:1.
1B) HERE BEGINS the MORNING of the FIRST of the “three days”, “according
to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
in which Jesus was delivered and crucified :–
Mk15:1/Mt27:1/Lk23:1/Jn19:14
1C) HERE is the LATE NOON AND MID–AFTERNOON of the FIRST of
the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
when Jesus DIED and
was deserted by all :–
Mk15:37–41; Mk27:50–56; Lk23:44–49; Jn19:28–30
2A) HERE BEGINS the SECOND of the “three days”, “according
to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
the day whereon Joseph WOULD BURY the body of Jesus :–
Mk15:42/Mt27:57, Lk23:50–51, Jn19:31/38.
2B) HERE is the NIGHT of the SECOND of the “three days”, “according to
the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
wherein Joseph begged the
body, and according to the law of the Jews – the passover’s law – undertook and prepared
to bury Jesus:–
Mk15:43–46a; Mt27:58–59; Lk23:52–53a; Jn19:31b–40
2C) HERE is the LATE NOON AND MID–AFTERNOON of the SECOND of
the “three days”, “according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
when Joseph and Nicodemus
laid the body and closed the tomb; and men and women left for
home :–
Mk15:46b–47; Mk27:60–61; Lk23:53b–56a; JN19:41–42
3A) HERE BEGINS the THIRD of the “three days”, “according to
the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
THAT JESUS WOULD RISE FROM THE DEAD ON :–
Lk23:56b
3B) HERE is the MORNING of the THIRD of the “three days”, “according
to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
Pilate ordered a guard “for the third day” :–
Mt27:62–66
3C) HERE is “IN the Sabbath’s Fullness MID–AFTERNOON” of the THIRD of the “three days”,
“according to the Scriptures” – the passover–Scriptures :–
First Sheaf Wave Offering Before the LORD :–
Mt28:1–4.
4A) HERE begins the day AFTER the “three days” (fourth day of
the passover season) :–
that Jesus WOULD APPEAR on :–
Mk16:1, “When the Sabbath was past ..... they BOUGHT ....”
4B) HERE is the EVENING of this day,
Jn20:1–10 Mary sees
the DOORSTONE was away from the tomb (discovers tomb has been
OPENED);
4C) HERE is the NIGHT
of this day,
Lk24:1–10 “DEEP(EST)
DARKNESS” ––– “women with their spices” and ontments go to
salve the body; “they found Him NOT” (discover tomb is EMPTY);
Mk16:2–8 “very early
(before) SUN’S RISING” ––– women’s return–visit to ascertain; “they fled
terrified and told NO ONE”.
4D) Here is sunrise (‘Sunday’
morning),
Jn20:11f, Mk16:9 “Mary
had had stood behind” .... saw the gardener (sunrise); “Risen,
early (sunrise) on the First Day, Jesus first APPEARED to Mary ....”
Mt28:5–10 “The angel
explained to the (other) women (Mt28:1–4) .... As they went to tell
.... Jesus met them” (after sunrise).
Mt28:11–15 Guard to
high priests.
USE BIBLES OF BEFORE THE
TWENTIETH CENTURY – they are not as wangled as the later ones. And compare
those ancient translations with the modern ones to see the truth of the
older ones!
Objection:
“The same verse you earlier used to assert that He resurrected on the
Sabbath, can also be used to assert that He resurrected on Sunday!”
Answer:
If the verse you have in
mind is Mt28:1, it CANNOT “also be used to assert that
He resurrected on Sunday!”
1)
BECAUSE of all the reasons I have already given from ALL the Scriptures;
2)
BECAUSE of its ONLY CORRECT literal
meaning:
“opse
de” and in fullness / late on / in
“sabbatohn”
of the Sabbath
(“sabbatohn”)
the Sabbath’s / Sabbath’s–time’s
“tehi”
in the
“epi”
very / midst
“phohs”
light / daylight / (noon)
“ousehi”
in the being
“eis”
towards / before / tending / against
“mian
(hehmeran) sabbatohn” Acc=excluded First (Day) of the week.
3) Precisely as used
in Lk23:54 for Friday “mid–afternoon
before the Sabbath”.
4) BECAUSE of
the Exodus and Leviticus passover
instructions concerning Abib 14, 14, and 16.
5) BECAUSE of
Mt12:40 and “three days AND three
nights”.
THEREFORE:
1) Fifth Day : Wednesday
night and Thursday day ––– Abib 14, Remove leaven and slaughter lamb;
2) Sixth Day / “the
Preparation WHICH IS the Foresabbath” : Thursday night and Friday day ––– Abib
15, “that which remaineth” carried out and burned (interred);
3) Seventh
Day Sabbath “according to the (Fourth) Commandment” : Friday night and
Sabbath, day ––– Abib 16, “First Sheaf Wave Offering Before the LORD”.
JX:
“In Mark 15:42 it says, “And now when the even was come, because it was
the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath (of Unleavened Bread).
Here we have Mark calling 2 different days, days of “preparation”. One the day
before Jesus died, and one on the day that Jesus died.
You argue: “this Sabbath was their 7th day Sabbath.”
GE:
In fact I “argue: “this Sabbath”, the day after “the Sabbath of Unleavened Bread”, “was their 7th day Sabbath”.
And you are already
confused, in that ‘you argue’, “Here .... in Mark 15:42 .... we have Mark
calling 2 different days, days of “preparation”. One the day before Jesus died,
and one on the day that Jesus died.”
We are reading from “Mark 15:42”, are we not? Now where,
do we “Here .... have Mark
calling 2 different days, days of “preparation”—
Plural, “days”? “One
the day before Jesus died, and one on the day that Jesus died”?
Where do we at all “here”, in “Mark 15:42”, read or even, find implied,
“that Jesus died” on that day?
Can’t you read, or can’t
you lie, JX?
Here we have Mark calling one
only day by its two different names,
“The Preparation Day”, and, “The Fore–Sabbath” : “The
Preparation Day which is The Fore–Sabbath,
was.”— Singular (‘Friday’).
And this day was neither “the day before Jesus died”,
nor “the day that Jesus died”. It was the day after the day Jesus died!
1) Here we have Mark calling “the day of
Preparation”, the day “which is the Fore–Sabbath”, which is the
Sixth Day of the week.
2) Here we have in Mark 15:42 it says, “And
now when the evening
(after sunset) had come already,
it already being the
Preparation which is the day before the (weekly) Sabbath”— which was
the very day of Unleavened Bread— not, “....
the day before the Sabbath (of
Unleavened Bread).” Friday was the
sabbath of unleavened bread.
Don’t you yourself argue
Jesus was crucified and died on Thursday afternoon, Abib 14? Then was the passover eaten in the same day that it was killed also? Or was it eaten after sunset on the next day?
So, while the passover was eaten in the following night and first part of that following day, sir, “it
by now being after sunset because the evening having had come already”, it
must have been Friday, by “now”.
This is how Mark – not I –
argue: “This Sabbath was their 7th day
Sabbath.”
JX:
“Not so, because on this day, the day Jesus died, Joseph of Arimathaea
still had time to go to the markets and purchase fine linen ....(Mark 15:46) ......”
GE:
1) What reasoning
or logic is this that ‘argues’, “because Joseph of Arimathaea still had time
to go to the markets and purchase
fine linen” it
1) still had to have been the day that Jesus died on?
and
2) could not have been the day after
Jesus had died on?
What is this, other than
pure assumption even had there been ‘law’ against purchase on a great day
sabbath? But the fact there is,
1) no such thing in all the Bible, and
2) clear indications purchase was made this very
night of the great day sabbath. Jn13:29c, Mk15:46. Note that I am not trying to prove Mk15:46
true; I accept and depart from the disposition Mk15:46 is literally correct,
true, and fact regardless any ceremonial laws.
2) Would Mark
not have ‘argued’ himself had it been
unlawful to purchase on the unleavened bread feast or sabbath day? Would he
have left us with ambiguous impressions concerning that which he so carefully
and clearly with Demonstrative Pronouns, Definitive Adverbs, Indicative
Predicates and vernacular and traditional appellations of days the lot have
defined?
Why should you, or I,
answer on Mark’s behalf? What he wrote
is in harmony with the other Gospels as well as with all the OT instructions
concerning the sabbath of unleavened bread, Abib 15. We don’t need to clarify anything; Mark
himself explained everything.
3) You have no reason to doubt Mk14:46 in the
light of verse 42 except the flimsy foundation of your own disbelief Joseph had
the law and historical circumstance on his side when he bought the linen during
the night hours of Abib 15 passover
sabbath.
4) The crux – next to this – of your dilemma,
dear JX, is that you try to do the impossible; you want to reconcile the theory
of a Wednesday Crucifixion with a Thursday Crucifixion actuality. You want to
create two days in between
Crucifixion and Resurrection. For that, you depend on the fallacy it was
unlawful to purchase on any ‘sabbath’ of any kind.
5) Notwithstanding, yours is the ‘reasoning’ and
‘arguing’ of assumption, to merely
suppose, to buy on the day of unleavened bread sabbath was out of the question,
and that to “purchase fine linen...(Mark
15:46) (was) something (Joseph) could
not do if Passover had already started the evening before, for it ranked as
High a Sabbath as the 7th day Sabbath, and there could be no marketing....no
buying and selling.”
How correct would you have been, JX, had you
admitted, and not denied, “Passover had
already started the evening before”. The thought must have dawned upon you for good reason, but you
without enquiring dismissed it unconditionally. That’s where you have gone
wrong : from the outset. You from the
word go contradicted Mark and John where they affirm it was the Preparation
that had been the great day sabbath, coinciding; that Preparation and Fore–Sabbath
were the same day, as well as ‘great day sabbath’, and that this day of Fore–Sabbath
and great day sabbath, had begun with “the evening” that “was”
introductory, ‘before–part’, of it, “already”.
Day of burial could not
have begun with the afternoon at the end of it, could it? Well, that is what
you are saying, throwing Mk15:42 and Lk23:54–56 together at the beginning of
the day.
Principal Mistakes:
1) Because you allege Joseph could not have bought on a sabbath, you reject the unambiguously stated fact the day that
Joseph undertook on, being a great
day sabbath indeed, had begun with after
sunset “evening”, and would end with after noon before sunset.
2) Ignoring what Joseph in between after sunset evening and before mid–afternoon had done – during twelve hours plus had to
have finished – you identify Mark 15:42 and parallel texts Matthew 27:57 and
John 19:31/38, with Luke 23:54–56 and parallel text John 19:42.
3) You regard Luke 23:54–56 and parallel text John
19:42 as indicating sunset itself virtually,
whereas these Scriptures clearly indicate the beginning of the more or less
three last hours on Friday afternoon properly the hours of “the Jews’
preparation/s” for the pending Sabbath.
1) Therefore, yours is the ‘reasoning’ and ‘arguing’
of assumption and then to apply your assumption as indiscriminating rule of
law. You use your own assumption as were it the law; you are not even supposing
the real law for the rule. And you merely allege the real law permits no
buying on the sabbath of unleavened bread, because declared JX, “Passover (‘sabbath’) ..... ranked as High a Sabbath as the 7th day
Sabbath.” In real life the law
allowed for buying on ‘ceremonial’ or ‘feast’ sabbaths; in fact, from its very
nature, demanded and commanded it! We
see this ‘law’, forcing itself upon its subjects in the very instance in
hand. Nevertheless the religious requirements
of it was obvious since the first passover recorded in Exodus and Leviticus.
2) Yours
is the ‘reasoning’ and ‘arguing’ that create false impressions by putting words of your own in Mark’s mouth, “Passover”, as were that ‘evening’ the evening beginning
of the day the passover would be slaughtered
on, and not what it really was, the day that the passover would be eaten on and the remains of it would be returned to the earth again.
Yours is the ‘reasoning’
and ‘arguing’ that create false
impressions by putting words of your own in Mark’s mouth, “Passover”, “had already started the evening”,
“before”, which must mean “the evening before” that began the day
that by ‘now’ – according to you – lay
almost 24 hours in the past and could not just have been beginning. (Lk23:54–56)
An impossible situation! You steer away
from the fact Mark mentions the evening ––– the evening after Jesus had been
crucified and died ––– the evening that had begun the next day.
Mark supposes or means neither “the evening before”, Wednesday evening, nor, the evening after, Friday evening. What Mark most certainly “here in Mark 15:42” did not think of, was the “afternoon” which
Luke in 23:54–56 had in mind.
Mark does not mean, and
makes no mention of, ‘Passover’, or,
of “the evening before”. He simply says,
“Now that (the present) evening, already was / Now
when already it had become, (the present)
evening”, ‘opsias genomenehs’, (the present) “evening having had started / (the present) evening having had begun already therefore (‘epei’)”. “When
evening it was”, the ‘evening’, Subject supposed in the (Ingressive) Aorist
Participle, ‘genomenehs’.
Not “Passover”, “had already started”; not even “Passover having had started”, because the Participle is Adjectival
of ‘evening’, not of ‘passover’, and ‘heh opsia’ is Feminine and ‘to pasxa’,
Neuter.
3) Yours
is ‘reasoning’ and ‘arguing’ that confuse the subjects of the verb and
predicates in Mark 15,42. “Evening it was”, “evening” that began “The
Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath”. “Evening having had started / evening having had begun already
therefore (‘epei’).”
“Evening having had started / evening
having had begun already therefore” while,
“now / by now (it) was The Preparation” : Ingressive Aorist •>—. “Evening
having had started / evening having
had begun already” yet while – in
wider sense and scope –“The Preparation was” still future and
prospective : Culminative Aorist —<•.
4) Yours
is ‘reasoning’ and ‘arguing’ that confuse beginning and end. The “evening” of THIS “Preparation
which was the Fore–Sabbath” lay at and
in the beginning of it— was its first part of day. ‘The evening before’
formed no part of the great day sabbath of passover and unleavened bread. ‘The evening before’ this evening, had had been the beginning of the day before “now”, the evening of the “day they slaughtered the passover” on. ‘The
evening before’ was Abib fourteen’s
‘evening (after sunset)’— not the fifteenth day’s after sunset in which they ate the passover.
5) Nowhere in all of Scripture can you
show us that buying was prohibited on any ‘ceremonial’ or ‘feast’ sabbath. The
Scriptures are clear and to the contrary, that many holy duties specifically of
the passover’s sabbath or sabbath of unleavened bread, the fifteenth day of the
First Month, were actually mandatory
or / and were by mandate, allowed.
6) Yours
is the ‘reasoning’ or ‘arguing’ that ignores the fact that “the evening had come already” and “now” it had been the duration of the yet
prospective day “already”— during
the time of which day Joseph would go purchase linen to wrap Him in; and during
the time of which day Joseph would still
bury the body of Jesus. Joseph began his undertaking ‘now’; he did not end it ‘now’. (He ended it according to Lk23,54–56 and
Jn19:42 on Friday afternoon ––– not on ‘Thursday evening’!)
7) Yours
is the ‘reasoning’ or ‘arguing’ that ignores what the ‘parallel’ text of
Mk15.42/Mt27,57, John 19:31, plainly
for the record stated, that “Because it was the Preparation (now) .... for
it was / would be** a great day sabbath that day, the Jews asked Pilate that
the legs (of the crucified) might be broken ....”. “The Preparation” and the “great day sabbath”,
just like in Mk15,42 “The Preparation” and the ‘day of unleavened bread sabbath’, were one and the same day, the
fifteenth day of the First Month, and “here” – in both Scriptures – were the
Sixth Day or ‘Friday’ that had begun after sunset and “It now having had
become evening”— “evening” of that very same night and of that very same
day’s beginning, “having had become already”.
(**Future, Culminative
Aorist, —<• “that day was” (‘ekeineh
hehmera ehn’); with Demonstrative Pronoun of “that” still prospective “day”.)
8) Yours
is an ‘arguing’ that ignores the reason, logic and truth that, to have asked
for the crucified to be removed when the great day sabbath would have been
virtually over, would have been
illogical to the utmost. (For to have them removed was the whole ‘reasoning’
behind the Jews’ asking for the legs of the crucified to be broken.) Yours is
an ‘arguing’ that ignores the reasoning that to have asked for the crucified to
be removed when and because the
sabbath of that great day had begun,
would have saved face more than the Jews deserved.
“The custom according to
the feast” was that the Roman authorities in sympathy with the religious and
national importance which the Jews attached to the feast, would rather have
released a condemned criminal than to have crucified him. The Jews despite
their own interest though, preferred Jesus to be crucified on the Preparation
of the Passover Abib 14. But no sooner than the ‘High Day Feast Sabbath’
actually had begun, they realised the shameful reminder of their subjection
under Roman rule, and requested that the death of the crucified be hastened by
having their legs broken— so that they could be removed from sight.
9) Yours
is an ‘arguing’ that not only ignores, but contradicts the truth “The
Preparation” was the only day “which is” the other, “the Fore–Sabbath”:
the one day of dual nature and dual
observance, which was both “the preparation, that is, the day before the
Sabbath” and, “the Sabbath (of Unleavened Bread)”
Feast, Abib 15, ‘great day sabbath’, and, “The Preparation Day”,
according to Jn19,31.
The sole objection you have been able to lodge against these multiple
self–explanatory and self–proving facts and factors, was your baseless
assumption that the Law forbade Joseph to do his buying of linen on the ‘great day sabbath’ because it was “something he could not do if Passover had
already started the evening before, for it ranked as High a Sabbath as the 7th
day Sabbath, and there could be no marketing....no buying and selling.”
Blunder or blueprint of bluster?
“So Mark himself clears up the issue by letting us know that the Last
Supper was a special time designated by Our Lord to eat the Passover with his
disciples. The actual national Passover was the next evening.”
JX continued with this
statement of his after he had written:
“Joseph of Arimathaea still had time to go to the markets and purchase
fine linen ....(Mark 15:46) ......” something
he could not do if Passover had already started the evening before, for it
ranked as High a Sabbath as the 7th day Sabbath, and there could be no
marketing....no buying and selling. So Mark himself clears up the issue by
letting us know that the Last Supper was a special time designated by Our Lord
to eat the Passover with his disciples. The actual national Passover was the
next evening.”
JX wrote this unbroken
passage of his under heading of where “In Mark 15:42 it says, “And now when the even was come, because
it was the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath (of Unleavened
Bread).” JX also inserted, “....(Mark
15:46)”. Then he identifies every
kind of ‘sabbath’ which he lists in the quoted section : “Passover” that “had already
started”; “High Sabbath” “the 7th day Sabbath”; “the Last Supper .... special time designated
.... to eat the Passover”, with this day thus demarcated in Mark 15:42–46, “the Sabbath (of Unleavened Bread)”. “The actual national Passover was the next
evening.”
Now I believe, JX
understands or does not understand the chronology and sequence of days, so :
Joseph of Arimathaea in Mark 15:42 goes to purchase fine linen (Mark 15:46), “Passover” “the Sabbath (of
Unleavened Bread)” Abib15, the evening after
because “It was something (Joseph) could not do if Passover had already started the
evening before”.
So Joseph bought the linen
on the day he could not buy it on, “the
Sabbath (of Unleavened Bread)”? Or, Jesus was crucified on the day he could
not be crucified on?
Therefore maybe, JX
understands or does not understand the chronology and sequence of days, so :
Because to buy “was something
(Joseph) could not do if Passover had already started the evening before”
(Wednesday evening), he could not have ‘bought’, as long as it was ‘Passover’ until sunset still. So Joseph
could not buy on Wednesday evening (.... why would he, since Jesus was not even
crucified yet?) nor could he have bought linen on Thursday afternoon, because
Mark says it had become evening and it was afternoon no longer when Joseph did
buy. .... and JX tells us it would have
been unlawful for Joseph to have done.
But Joseph could not buy
linen after the day of Crucifixion because by “now”, “it had become evening and was the day of Preparation already”
and JX is of the opinion buying linen “was
something (Joseph) could not do if
Passover had already started” – whether having started “the evening before” or sunset the evening
after, the evening of “now”.
It didn’t matter if Joseph
could not buy linen on the evening after the Thursday JX says Jesus was
crucified on, or if Joseph could not buy linen on the evening before the
Thursday that JX says Jesus was crucified on. Joseph had no chance to purchase
the linen ––– according to JX.
So did Joseph buy the
linen or is Mark telling a story?
Now just say Joseph could
buy linen despite it was the sabbath of the passover high day and unleavened
bread, would there have been any discrepancies or impossibilities left?
No, not one.
Therefore Joseph actually,
the evening after Crucifixion–day, beginning of Sixth Day, ‘Friday’, ‘Thursday
evening’, when “The Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath” and – according to
John – “that day that was a great day sabbath” had had begun – calmly, sure and assuredly, had left the body where
Pilate had ordered it to be delivered to him, and went and bought linen, having
transgressed no single law in all the Holy Law Book of God, but obeying the
call of Christian faith’s duty.
That’s how I have it in ‘my
book’ also.
O no! JX protests; you are
supposing Joseph bought linen after
sunset; I am saying he bought the linen before the sun had set before the fall of night, while it was still
afternoon on Crucifixion day and not unleavened bread feast sabbath yet.
Because to buy, JX protests, was “.... something
he could not do if Passover had already started the evening before, for it
ranked as High a Sabbath as the 7th day Sabbath, and there could be no
marketing....no buying and selling.”
I answer, JX, Joseph then could also not have bought the
linen because what you here are saying is simply again, “.... something he could not do if Passover had already started the evening before”, and while still before sunset afternoon of “Passover”, that “ranked as
High a Sabbath as the 7th day Sabbath, and there could be no marketing....no
buying and selling”. You are
contradicting yourself. Why have I to
say it for you, that you are contradicting the straight forward statements from
the pen of Mark?
Dear JX, why did you say, “something Joseph could not do if Passover had already started the evening before” but while ‘Passover’ was still going on “before sundown” could do? Or do you believe a Wednesday
Crucifixion? How come then you said you
believed a Thursday Crucifixion?
So Mark himself clears up
the issue by letting us know that the Last Supper was a special time designated
by Our Lord to eat the Passover with his disciples before He was crucified on the day of passover that “they always
had to kill the passover” Abib 14,
but right after it had begun : Mk14:12,17 / Mt26:17,20; Lk22:7,14; Jn13:1,
1Cor11:23b. .....
“The actual national Passover was the next evening”, Jn18:28 x
Jn19:31. Yes! Absolutely, yes!
Which was, the ‘actual national Passover’? Friday evening after the day the
passover lamb was killed on, the Sixth Day of the week beginning when “the 7 Day
feast of Unleavened Bread began at Sundown that
evening with a Passover meal”—
Abib 15. (“That evening”: the evening after “Jesus (had) died at
3:00 Thursday afternoon”. (“Thursday .....” : “Passover (that) had already
started the evening before” or ‘Wednesday evening’.)
Did Jesus have “a Passover meal” with his disciples
after he had “died at 3:00 Thursday
afternoon” and had been buried? No. He and his disciples sat at table the
night before He was crucified, and “The
actual national Passover was the next evening”.
JX:
“This we believe is the explanation of the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ..... Jesus died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon.
Passover was that evening. Thursday itself was called “The Preparation Day”. The 7 Day feast of Unleavened Bread began at
Sundown that evening with a Passover meal. That same sundown Thursday evening
began their Sabbath–High–Holy Day rest. This was not their Saturday–Sabbath
rest, which starts on Friday evening. This was their High–Holy–Day–of–Rest, the
feast of Unleavened Bread.”
GE:
Unobtrusive in there, are
two subtle statements of JX’s,
1) “Passover
was that evening. Thursday itself ....”;
2) “Thursday
itself was called “The Preparation Day”.”
Yes, “Passover was that evening, and passover was, “Thursday itself”. But just
so was Friday, and Saturday, and the Wednesday before; and even the Sunday
before— “Observe ye the month of Abib” as Passover–Month, especially “from
the tenth day of the First Month” etc.,
1) until on the fourteenth
day of the First Month it was ‘passover’; but ‘passover’ “when they always
killed the passover
(lamb)”; and
2) until on the fifteenth
day of the First Month it was ‘passover’, but ‘passover’ when they always ate the passover lamb; and when also
always the great day sabbath of the passover was— having been the first day
they also always ate
unleavened bread of the passover.
Therefore having said that
“Jesus died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon.
Passover was that evening. Thursday itself was called “The Preparation Day”,
is tantamount to declaring exactly what JX declared without blushing, “Here we have Mark calling 2 different days,
days of “preparation”. One the day before Jesus died, and one on the day that
Jesus died.” JX means, ‘back to back’,
chronologically consecutive days, both of them.
So what is the result
because JX didn’t write, Mark calling
‘one day the day after Jesus died’, “The Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath”,
and so implying the other, the day Jesus died ....? So what is the result JX instead, actually wrote, “Here we have Mark calling 2 different days,
days of “preparation”. One the day before Jesus died, and one on the day that
Jesus died” ....? The
result is that besides that JX gave no ‘explanation’ and could not have come to
arguable ‘conclusion’, he is trying to propagate great delusion.
What delusion? That “Here
we have Mark calling 2 different days, days of “preparation”. One the day before Jesus died, and one on the day that Jesus died”.
Why a delusion?
Where is “here”?
“Here”, “In Mark 15:42”,
where “it says, “And now when the even
was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the Sabbath
(of Unleavened Bread).” Because
here in 15:42, Mark is speaking of “The Preparation that is the day before the Sabbath”
and that also coincidentally had been the day “of Unleavened Bread” and “great day sabbath” of passover as
John called it, fifteenth day of the First Month and Sixth Day of the week at
once, “It having been evening already”.
At this point in time, who is it who act? The Jews
to crucify Jesus? No! Joseph, to bury Jesus!
Now what is further wrong about JX’s time–scheme? That JX ascribes the start of this, “great day sabbath”, the start of the passover’s and first
unleavened bread’s Feast Day–sabbath,
to the day before, this day, to the day of Jesus’ crucifixion!
What is further wrong is that JX ascribes this
day’s ‘evening–beginning’ to the day
before this day, to “Passover had already
started the evening before”— to the day past and finished, to the day of Jesus’ crucifixion and his having remained
on the cross, forlorn and deserted by
all! Lk23:48–49.
What is further wrong is
that JX tears from the passover’s sabbath day its evening–beginning, and pastes it onto the day that had finished
before it; that had closed when the sun
had set and “evening having had come, it was The
Preparation .... that great day–sabbath” of passover, ‘Friday’, after, ‘Thursday’, and not, “the
evening before”, Thursday.
And if things could not
get worse, JX concocted his chronology and bungled his days despite the eye catching and attention
demanding, glaring presence of “the day they had to kill the passover”
and “always, killed the passover on” and had to “remove leaven on /
day without leaven”, Ex12:14, mentioned and implied and taken as landmark
in time, in each of the four Gospels; placed, conspicuously, at the beginning–time
and important event of that Fifth
Day’s (‘Wednesday–’) “evening”, namely, The Last Supper “In the evening / when the
evening had come” Mk14:12,17 / Mt26:17,20; Lk22:7,14; Jn13:1, 1Cor11:23b .....
twenty four hours before the
day or the time of day referred to “here
in Mark 15:42”!
JX:
“This investigation into Mark’s Gospel would apply to Matthew’s and Luke’s
account as well. The Synoptic writers wrote of Christ’s designated Passover, while
John wrote of the actual national day of the Jewish Passover.”
GE:
JX is saying nothing at
all, except to imply the Synoptists contradict John; which is yet another of JX’s
unfounded assumptions. In fact, it’s not even JX’s assumption, but one he
borrows from virtually everyone before him who had given this mere supposition space
in their vacuous thinking. Both the Synoptic
writers and John wrote of Christ’s designated Passover, date and day of which
coincided with ‘the Jewish’ and ‘Bible’, passover. The Last Supper was that “special time designated by Our Lord” to “prepare”, ‘to eat the Passover’ in His own being and by own Goings Through: “Eat
... drink .... for this is my flesh
.... this, my blood.”
The Last Supper in fact
was the entering of Christ upon his “designated Passover”; his descending
into hell suffering dying and death, was Jesus’ ‘designated Passover’. “Truly the Son of Man goeth as it was determined.”
Lk22:22a. “That this which is written must yet be accomplished in Me.”
37.
“Christ’s designated Passover” involved more than the first day of God’s Passover. “Christ’s
designated Passover” was the date and every
of “three days and three nights” “according to the Scriptures .... how that Christ died, and how that He was buried, and how that He arose again the third day”.
“Christ’s designated Passover” as far as his descent into hell
having suffered dying and death was concerned, particularly involved the first
of these three days when “in the same
night that He was betrayed”, “this is your hour, and the
power of darkness”. 53. “My
soul is exceeding sorrowful unto death.”
Mk14:34a.
“The
“The Son of Man goeth
as it is written of Him.” Mt26:24. “I
will not drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s Kingdom.”
29. “I will not eat of this passover until it be fulfilled in
the
In the same night Jesus
declared: “Now is the hour ....
for the Son to glorify the Father
.... now is the hour for .... the
[ God’s Kingdom from the
perspective of the disciple:—
“If I should die with Thee, I will not deny Thee in
any wise.” Mk14:31. “Whither
I go, thou canst not follow Me now; but thou shalt follow Me afterwards.”
36. “Until that day that I drink it
new in the
Therefore, The Kingdom of
God is Jesus’ through suffering dying and death having entered into the Kingdom
His Own and the Father’s Glory. If one
understand the essence, one might understand the order of the Passover of Jesus
Christ. Never could the essence be deduced from the order; and never the
essence without the order. Jesus is “The Lamb of God”; but “our Passover” and
Passover Lamb of God. “For I
delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ
died for our sins : according to the Scriptures; indeed, how that He was
buried; in fact, how, that He rose again the third day : according to the
Scriptures”— according to the passover Scriptures!
This is the only way in which this investigation into Mark’s Gospel would apply
to Matthew’s and Luke’s and John’s accounts, all the same. The Gospel writers all
in accord wrote of Christ’s ‘designated
Passover’, ‘the actual national day
of the Jewish Passover’ to have
begun, ‘here’ : Mk14:12/17;
Mt26:17/20; Lk22:7/14; Jn13:1; so did Paul in 1Cor11:23; on which day the Passover Lamb of God’s Kingdom .....
One: .....
..... would be slaughtered.
This is the explanation of
the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ on
the day before the day that had begun “here in Mark 15:42”: Jesus
died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon. It was the Passover— “The Preparation of the Passover”, Jn19:14, “when
the passover must be
killed”, Lk22:7b, and
Two:
.....
..... leaven
must be removed, Ex12:18–19. In the Gospels—
“the day of de–leaven”, “the day–of–unleaven”,
‘adzymos’, Mk14:12a/Mt26:17a/Lk22:7a, Jn13:1 / 28:8 x 19:14/31.
After which: .....
“That same sundown Thursday evening began their Sabbath–High–Holy Day
rest. This was not their Saturday–Sabbath
rest, which starts on Friday evening.”
“This”— “here in Mark 15:42”, “that same sundown Thursday evening began”, and was, ‘Friday itself called’
“The Preparation Day
which is the Fore–Sabbath”, “The Jews’ Preparation” during which....
1) that “evening”
would be:
Passover Feast Sabbath of Unleavened Bread (Jn18:28x19:31),
on which the seven days’ Feast
of Unleavened Bread
had had begun after sundown, “here”, “now”, “in Mark 15:42”,
and, in
that “evening” in that “night to be observed”,
‘a Passover meal’ consisting
of the cooked passover’s sacrifice, and
“together with” it,
“unleavened bread”,
would be “eaten”. Ex12:8.
“Here in Mark 15:42”, “This”— “that same sundown Thursday evening began”,
and was, ‘Friday itself, called’ “The Preparation Day which is the Fore–Sabbath”
and “The Jews’ Preparation”,
during which Joseph, that “evening” would ....
2) prepare
to bury the body of Jesus, Mk15:42, Jn19:31; and,
“the same day”
daylight following (Dt21:22–23), would ....
“lay the body” and “close
the grave door”, Lk23:54–56, Jn19:42—
well “before the pending
Sabbath, mid–afternoon”, Lk23:54.
2B) This
is also the only way in which ‘This
investigation into Mark’s Gospel’, “Here,
in Mark15:42”, ‘would apply’ all the same to Matthew’s and Luke’s and John’s accounts of Jesus’
interment in Mt27:57, Lk23:50–53 and Jn19:31/38,
as well as
‘would apply’ in Lk23:54–56 and
Jn19:42 to Jesus’ interment when
finished and not when beginning! (Not to Jesus’ crucifixion in any way!)
“Here, in Mark15:42”,
Mark, like the other Synoptic writers and
John, wrote of “Christ’s designated
Passover” and “national day of the Jewish Passover” of Unleavened Bread .... “their High–Holy–Day–of–Rest, the feast of
Unleavened Bread” in actual fact— of ‘Friday
itself called’ “The Preparation Day which is the Fore–Sabbath” and “great
day sabbath” (Jn19:31), on which the seven
days’ ‘Feast (of Passover)’ began after sundown on Thursday evening
and on which the passover’s sacrifice was eaten;
and in the following daylight of ‘Friday
itself’, its “remains” were
removed and returned to the earth, confirming, “In Mark 15:42 it says, “And now when the even was come, because
it was the preparation which is the day before”, “their 7th day Sabbath”.
Because here we have Mark and John, calling two different days, the
very day of “preparation”. One, the
day which was, “The Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath”, Mark. (The day after
Jesus died and not as JX pretends, “the day before
Jesus died”.) And the other, “that
day (that) was a great day sabbath” (John), the day the very same which was
“The Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath” and day after Jesus had died and not
as JX pretends, “the day that Jesus died”.
So do I argue, the “pending
Sabbath” (‘epefohsken sabbaton’), was in fact, “their 7th day Sabbath”; in fact, “The Sabbath according to the
(Fourth) Commandment”. Lk23:56.
And so Mark himself clears
up the issue by letting us know that he never “here, in Mark15:42”, wrote about “the Last Supper” or, about “a
special time designated by Our Lord to eat the Passover with his disciples”.
JX:
“A CHOICE
As with all Scripture interpretation, one can accept or reject these
deductions. But they are sound and are also supported by Scripture.
Satan would love to keep the Church confused in as many issues as possible. Only the Holy Spirit can enlighten truth to
individuals.”
GE:
How is it possible “one can accept or reject” ‘Scripture interpretation’ that is “sound and also supported by Scripture”,
and in the last analysis is ‘truth’, ‘the Holy Spirit’, ‘enlightened’? Surely yes, “Satan
would love to keep the Church confused in as many issues as possible” if ‘truth’ and truthful ‘interpretation’ depended on “a choice” of “individuals”.
JX:
“The Lord has the final say in this matter. He said that He was in the
heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights, and Scripture records His
resurrection on the first day of the week, Sunday. That leaves no other
conclusion than that Jesus was crucified on a Thursday.
HIGH–HOLY DAY SABBATH
You see, Passover is tied to a specific date, Nisan 14. Since it is tied to a
specific date, it can occur on any day of the week, as the calendar rotates
year after year.”
GE:
“The Lord has the final say in this matter”, yet, it is a matter of “a choice” of “individuals”?
The Lord “said that He was in the heart of the earth
for 3 days and 3 nights, and Scripture records His resurrection on the first
day of the week, Sunday”? True, the
Lord did say “that He was”, or would
have been, “in the heart of the earth for
3 days and 3 nights”. That’s one thing. It’s another to say, The “Scripture records His resurrection on the
first day of the week, Sunday”.
I have spent my money on
other vanities in the meantime, or I would have offered all money I might have
had if you could quote where “Scripture
records His resurrection on the first day of the week, Sunday”. I mean, real ‘Scripture’ despite would you
have said ‘Sunday’ in stead of ‘The First Day of the week’.
‘Truth’ is, neither the Scriptures or the Lord “records His resurrection on the first day of the week, Sunday”.
That Jesus “said that He was in the heart of the earth
for 3 days and 3 nights”, does not ‘leave
the conclusion’ of “His resurrection
on the first day of the week, Sunday”.
Besides, how do you count
:
“3 Days:
Sometime Thursday before Sundown
Friday....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday....12 hours (6 to 6)
3 Nights
Thursday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Friday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
This time frame would not have to be a specific 72 hour period, but it would
have to be a minimum of 60 hours + additional hours”,
Yet, arrive at
“Scripture records His resurrection on the first day of the week, Sunday”?
By dividing every of the “three
days” “according to the Scriptures”!
You demolish the unity of
each real ‘day’ “according to the Scriptures” of Abib 14, 15 and 16, and of the
Fifth, the Sixth and the Seventh Days “according to the Scriptures” (of each
consisting of night part first and day–part last) and create your own, false,
three days and three nights which are no “three days”, but six halves of four,
independent days :
1) Of (Thursday) the Fifth Day’s last (day) halve, you make the Sixth Day’s first halve;
2) Of (Friday) the Sixth Day’s first (night)
halve, you make the Fifth Day’s last halve;
3) Of (Friday) the Sixth Day’s last (day) halve, you make the Seventh
Day’s first (day) halve;
4) Of (Saturday) the Seventh Day’s first (night) halve, you make the Sixth
Day’s last halve;
5) Of (Saturday) the Seventh Day’s last (day) halve, you make ..... the First Day’s first halve? ..... If you
were consistent you would, and would place the Resurrection on Saturday the
Seventh Day’s last (day) halve!
But you
6) of Sunday the ‘First Day’, its night–half, attempt to make ‘the third day’— while “according to the
Scriptures” the ‘First Day of the week’ or whichever part of it by all logic
or sequence or name or count or Bible reckoning of the day–cycle, cannot be “the third day”, but must— if “Jesus died at 3:00 Thursday afternoon”, be the fourth day : Thursday, 1; Friday, 2; Saturday, 3; Sunday, 4.
Therefore your statement:
“3 Days:
Sometime Thursday before Sundown
Friday....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday....12 hours (6 to 6)
3 Nights
Thursday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Friday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
Saturday night....12 hours (6 to 6)
.....
This we believe is the explanation of the Crucifixion of Jesus Christ”,
is calculatedly false while
you obviously hide the fact “Saturday
night....12 hours (6 to 6)” was the night of another day than ‘day’ of “the third day according to the
Scriptures”, the Seventh Day, (‘Saturday....12
hours (6 to 6)’). Of course you knew “Saturday night” is first halve of the First Day of the week!
The “three days”, “according
to the Scriptures” the passover–Scriptures, are no loose standing “3 Days”
and “3 Nights” merely. They are “three
days” both “according to the
Scriptures” of passover, prophetically the first three ‘first days’ of
passover, and “according to the Scriptures’” determination or ‘law of days’,
‘days’ of ‘night and day’ beginning from sunset
going on until afternoon until sunset; not,
beginning from sunrise going on
until morning until sunrise.
JX:
“The Lord has the final say in this matter. He said that He was in the
heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights, and Scripture records His
resurrection on the first day of the week, Sunday. That leaves no other
conclusion than that Jesus was crucified on a Thursday.”
GE:
‘Not so’. The Lord has the
final say in this matter because He was the Passover Lamb of God Himself. He
said – speaking from the viewpoint of his having overcome death and grave –
that He would have been in the heart of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights, and
Scripture records Him also as saying that He would rise “the third day” or “in
three days”. The Scriptures actually
recorded Jesus as saying He would “the third day, finish”, just
like “God the Seventh Day finished”, in that He “the Seventh Day from
all His works, rested”. Matthew in
fact records Jesus’ resurrection, “On the Sabbath Day in its fullness, mid–afternoon
before the First Day of the week.” ‘That
leaves no other conclusion than that Jesus was crucified on a Thursday.’ The Fifth Day night and day; the Sixth Day
night and day; the Seventh Day night and day “On the Sabbath”, “in
Sabbath’s daylight being mid–afternoon”, literally, specifically, and
precisely, “three days and three nights”, “the third day according to
the Scriptures”.
This count of the ‘three–days–and–three–nights’–‘three–days’,
is the only explanation that can account for the first “night to be observed”— “the night” (Wednesday night), “wherein the Lord was
betrayed” and He ‘passed through’ through suffering of both dying
and death by the “exceeding sorrowful(ness) of (his) soul even unto death.”
JX:
“.... the DAY within the week of our birthday changes each year, as the
calendar rotates. .... It is the same with Passover and the Feast of Unleavened
Bread. It occurs on whatever weekday the 14th of Nisan falls.”
GE:
This statement is correct
in two respects:
1) In respect of the principle that “the 14th of Nisan falls .... on whatever
weekday .... as the calendar rotates”; and
2) as far as “Passover and the Feast of Unleavened Bread”, on “the 14th of Nisan” will be found in only
the Book of Exodus being the only Bible Book that also dates “the Feast of Unleavened Bread” on “the 14th of Nisan”. But every other book that dates ‘passover’ when
it was “the Feast of Unleavened Bread”
(and when also the passover sacrifice was eaten) dates it on the 15th of Nisan— without exception.
JX:
“The year Our Lord died, it (“the 14th Nisan”) fell on a Thursday
evening. Thursday–DAY was the day of Preparation. Our Lord died 3 hours before
the Passover Meal (at the exact time they slaughtered the lambs).”
GE:
Sorry to interrupt; but you
confuse just about every aspect of the day involved.
“The year Our Lord died, it (“the 14th Nisan”) fell on a Thursday
evening.” That is – you, JX –
saying, ‘on Friday’! Nisan
14 fell on Thursday and that was Nisan 14 that had begun on ‘Wednesday evening’.
You confuse these
Scriptures, Mk14:42/Mt27:57, Jn19:31/38, Lk23:50, for Mk14:12/17; Mt26:17/20, Lk22:7/14,
Jn13:1/29, 18:28, 19:14. You confuse
the beginning of the Sixth Day (Friday), for the beginning of the Fifth
Day (Thursday).
And,
you confuse these same Scriptures Mk14:42/Mt27:57, Jn19:31/38, Lk23:50, for Lk23:54–56 / Jn19:42. You confuse the beginning of the Sixth Day (Thursday evening), for its ending (Friday afternoon).
“Thursday–DAY was the day of Preparation.” Thursday was “The Preparation of the Passover”—
it was no ‘ordinary’, “day of Preparation”.
You should distinguish between the ‘Preparation Day’ mentioned in “here in Mark 15:42” and “The Preparation
of Passover” mentioned in John 19:14. Crucifixion was on “The Preparation of
Passover” Abib 14 “the day leaven was removed” and “when they had
to kill the passover”; “the Feast of
Unleavened Bread” fell on “The Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath”,
‘Friday’, Abib 15 the day they always ate the passover sacrifice.
“Our Lord died 3 hours before the Passover Meal (at the exact time they
slaughtered the lambs).” No, our
Lord died 3 hours before end of day, 3 hours before sunset; “the Passover Meal” was taken in the
beginning of day the following night after sunset.
“The Passover meal was in three more hours.” The Passover meal was in more than three more
hours. Mark 15:42 and John 19:31 are
clear “It had had been evening already” when first the Jews and after
them, Joseph, did what they did; which had to have been after they have had
their ‘passover meal’— cf. Jn18:28
and 19:31.
“That is why Joseph of Arimathaea and Nicodemus craved the Body of Jesus
from Pilate (Mark 15:43).... “ which is wrong in that Joseph on his own
went in to Pilate to ask; he went “in secret” so that not even Nicodemus
could have known at that point in time of night. Nicodemus who also “the
first time came to Jesus in the night”, only later in the night “arrived
there” where Joseph had had the body delivered already in order to prepare
it for “proper burial as the laws of the Jews demanded”.
“.... so that they could anoint and bury Jesus’ body, before the High Holy
Sabbath–Feast, which would begin in a few hours.” How many are your “few hours”, JX? “A few hours” mean at least two hours. So
from that Joseph appeared on the scene, he within one only hour had closed the
grave; two hours before sunset, “and went home”, Mt27:60c. That, you say, happened on Thursday afternoon.
Part represents whole; therefore the two hours of Thursday left, you should
reckon for one day of daylight. And you have established, you claim, Jesus
resurrected on Sunday morning; which He must have after sunrise, if we may
judge by John 20 from verse 11 on where Mary saw Jesus for the gardener who by
then had started work, and assumed as Jesus once said, the day has 12 hours to
work, it would have been after sunrise by the time Mary saw Jesus? Had it been
then that He actually had risen, you have four daylight parts representing four
days of daylight; not three only. You did say 60 plus hours, did you not, JX? Are those ‘plus hours’ these of Sunday
morning?
Truth is, JX, you, do not have “three days”; you at the same
time have more than three “days” and, less than “three” days; more parts than three
days’ parts; and much less than three days’ hours.
Of course it’s
inexplicable. Nevertheless, this does
explain it somehow, “Thursday–DAY was the
day of Preparation.” “Thursday–DAY” was Crucifixion–day. You don’t recognise Thursday for having been ‘passover’
in good right. You cut it off from the actual passover, and make of it “the day of Preparation”— cutting away also
the words of John that it was “The
Preparation OF Passover”.
Nisan 14 IS ‘Passover’. It
says how many times, “They kept passover ON the fourteenth day”, meaning they slaughtered the passover sacrifice (“during
day–time” – ‘behn–ha–arbayim’ of
passover proper) on, passover proper.
First
Day of Unleavened Bread FEAST of seven
days, was second day of the Passover
of eight days Feast. “The Preparation OF Passover” was passover first of all and foremost.
JX:
“This Sabbath was not the Saturday–Sabbath which begins on Friday
evening. This was the High Holy Day Sabbath, which that year fell on a Thursday
evening and Friday–DAY. In other words, the HOLY DAY Sabbath (Passover–Unleavened
Bread) was followed by their 7th day Saturday–Sabbath, thereby having a double–Sabbath,
back–to–back.”
GE:
Absolutely right! The core and key and essence of everything
else as far as understanding the days and dates and times of Jesus’ Passover is
concerned! How could you get so
confused, dear JX?
JX:
“..... Here is what Matthew 28:1 says: [ KJV Authorized ]
“In the END of the Sabbath, AS IT BEGAN TO DAWN toward the first day of the
week (Sunday), came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.”
It doesn’t get much plainer than that . Jesus arose Sunday ( AFTER the Saturday–Sabbath
was ended) on the 1st day of the week.”
GE:
It doesn’t get much
plainer obfuscated than that. Jesus arose on the Sabbath : “Here
is what Matthew 28:1 says: [ KJV Authorized ]
“IN the end OF the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week ....” It doesn’t get plainer than that at all : “Sabbath’s”;
“ON the SABBATH”; “In Sabbath’S–TIME”; “By Sabbath’s FULLNESS”; “Sabbath’s mid–afternoon”;
“towards / before the First Day”, etcetera—
ANYTHING BUT, quote: “AFTER the Saturday–Sabbath
was ended on the 1st day of the week”.
It cannot be
discussed!
And so obviously you must
have sensed, because this was how you stopped your ‘arguing’ with reference to Matthew 28:1.
JX:
“Matthew 12:40 tells us that Jesus had to be in the earth for 3 days and
3 nights:
“For as Jonas was 3 days and 3 nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of
Man be three days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth”.
Our Lord did not speak in “idioms”. He always spoke with mathematical accuracy
and truth. Backing up 3 nights, we know then that Saturday night, Friday night,
and Thursday night, Jesus was in the heart of the earth.”
GE:
No, you don’t; that’s what
you allege you, or, ‘we know’. You don’t know any such things from the
Scriptures because you cannot know
any such things from the Scriptures. You ‘know’
this here stated things from your own presuming of them.
“Our Lord did not speak in “idioms”. He always spoke with mathematical
accuracy and truth.” That is
nonsense and untrue, and you know it.
The very case in hand is one of our Lord’s speaking in figure or
symbolically – in “idioms” – as you
have it. “The Son of Man shall be three
days and 3 nights in the heart of the earth”, yes. Yes, “three
days and three nights” Jesus clearly intended literally; no problem. But just as clearly Jesus meant his words “shall be in the heart of the earth” both
idiomatically and figuratively. “Shall be”
is the idiomatic use of Tense for retrospective Past affirmation. “In the heart of the earth” is
figurative, symbolic language of concepts, or metaphor, definitely not by any
stretch of the imagination applicable or true if “spoke(n) with mathematical accuracy and truth”. And that is exactly
with mathematical accuracy where JX loses grip on both reality and truth.
Listen to what Jesus said,
“For as Jonas was three (literal) days and three (literal) nights in the whale’s
(literal) belly; so shall the Son of Man (literally) three (literal) days and
three (literal) nights (of three literal Scriptural passover–days), (figuratively, symbolically, metaphorically)
be in the (figurative, symbolical, metaphorical) heart of the (figurative,
symbolical, metaphorical) earth.”
Figuratively,
symbolically, metaphorically “in the heart of the earth” is what makes all the
difference between going wrong or keeping right. Not that literal, ‘mathematical accuracy’ also make a difference; it does. Let us
begin to apply this literal, ‘mathematical
accuracy and truth’ to our understanding of Matthew 28:1. So that we shall find that we are to start “Backing up 3 days”, not “from Sunday”, but from “On the
Sabbath” if we intend to reckon inclusively. Because we know that Jesus literally and
mathematically accurate and true had to have been “in the heart of the earth”
—not “in the grave” as JX has it—, “three
days and three nights” all
inclusively; —not as JX has it “in the grave Saturday, Friday and part of
Thursday before Sundown”!
We need to translate into
Biblical ‘idiom’ to understand! We know that Jesus had to be in the “heart of the earth”, Sabbath part of
daytime and whole of night time; the Sixth Day all of daytime as well as all of
night time; and the Fifth Day all of daytime as well as all of night time. But
we also know that Jesus had to be in
the “grave”,
Sabbath part of daytime and whole of night time; and the Sixth Day all but
twenty one hours! Both things we know with both
literal and mathematical accuracy and truth, and, idiomatic, figurative, symbolical, metaphorical accuracy and
truth.
We know with literal and mathematical accuracy and truth that
Jesus was in the grave Sabbath part
of daytime and whole of night time; the Sixth Day part of daytime and prepared for the grave part of night
time; and the Fifth Day no part or time in the grave or prepared for the grave,
at all, because on the Fifth Day they crucified Him.
We know with idiomatic, figurative, symbolical,
metaphorical accuracy and truth that
Jesus was “in the heart of the earth” while suffering dying and death Sabbath, part of daytime and whole
of night time; the Sixth Day, all of daytime and all of night time; and the
Fifth Day, all of daytime as well as all of night time.
We know with literal and mathematical accuracy and truth “how that Christ died for our sins according to the
Scriptures (the first day of passover, Abib 14); and how that He was buried (according to the Scriptures
the second first day of passover, Abib 15); and how that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures (the third first day of
passover, Abib 16).”
We pray that we, with idiomatic,
figurative, symbolical, metaphorical accuracy
and truth, “might know Him and the power of his resurrection”, and
with literal and mathematical accuracy
and truth “the third day
according to the Scriptures” of his resurrection from the dead:— “On the
Sabbath”.
Therefore we without a
shadow of a doubt now know the above would also have been possible by “backing up 3 days from Sunday” if “from Sunday” with literal, mathematical accuracy and truth were exclusively understood.
Therefore we without a
shadow of a doubt now know the above would also have been possible by “backing up 3 days from Sunday” if ‘Jesus was in the grave from Thursday night’
with literal, mathematical accuracy and
truth were exclusively
understood, because Joseph and Nicodemus laid the body of Jesus in the tomb on “the
Day of Preparation which is the Fore–Sabbath”, “while the Sabbath was pending
mid–afternoon”— ‘Friday’ only.
Therefore we without a
shadow of a doubt now know the above would also have been possible by exclusively
“backing up 3 days from Sunday” if with both
literal, mathematical accuracy and truth,
and, idiomatic, figurative, symbolical, metaphorical accuracy and truth, the fact “Our Lord Thursday was in the heart of the
earth” all day, day and night, is inclusively
understood, “three days and three nights” of “three days”, “according to the
Scriptures” the passover–Scriptures.
‘There you have it.’
JX:
“Matthew 28:1 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus
arose on Sunday.
Matthew 12:40 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus was in the
grave 3 days and 3 nights.”
GE:
Just old errors over–emphasised.
“Matthew 28:1 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus
arose on Sunday.” Wrong. No, false! Matthew 28:1 is absolutely 100% accurate when
it states that Jesus arose, quote: “In
the Sabbath”. Where you should
be ‘mathematically accurate and truthful’, dear JX, you are not; and as a
result also ‘idiomatically’ are inaccurate and untruthful.
“Matthew 12:40 is Absolutely 100 % accurate when it states that Jesus
was in the grave 3 days and 3 nights.”
Wrong. No, false! Matthew 12:40 is absolutely 100% accurate when it
states that Jesus was, quote: “in the heart
of the earth, three days and three nights.” Where
you should be ‘idiomatically’ or rather by figure of speech or metaphorically
be ‘accurate and truthful’, dear JX, you are not, and as a result you are also ‘mathematically’,
inaccurate and untruthful.
JX:
“John 19:31
is Absolutely 100% accurate when it tells us that the Sabbath immediately
following Jesus death was the Sabbath of their High Holy Day, the Feast of
Unleavened Bread (Exodus 12:15–17), and that this was not to be confused with
their 7th day Sabbath.”
GE:
All error, it is said,
contains some element of truth.
JX:
“Luke 24:21 is 100% accurate when it states “and besides all this, today
is the third day since these things were done”. (Sunday Luke 24:1 and 24:13)”
GE:
And which were “these things done”? They are these: quote:
“How the chief priests
(first glimmer of daylight Lk23:66, Mk15:1)
and our rulers delivered
Him to be condemned to death
(Jn19:14,
6 a.m. Thursday morning) and
crucified. (9 a.m. Mk15:25)
But we trusted that it
had been He that should have redeemed
today is the third day
since these things (on that day) were
done.
Next thing we know,
certain women also of our company who were at the sepulchre earliest this
morning, surprised us. .... They found not his body.” Cf. 24:1.
What are you, telling us, JX?
That “today (Sunday) is the third day
since these things were done”?
Fine! What are you saying? Who
objected? Then how does “Backing up 3 days from Sunday” prove “.... we know that Jesus had to be in the grave, Saturday, Friday and part of Thursday before Sundown”? Where do you read about a grave or a burial
back then? Sunday morning was the first time these disciples learned
about the grave, when the women “surprised” them, having informed them
on the grave and the missing body!
JX:
“How do we know that Jesus’ Triumphant entry into
Let’s say we have a “Passover Calendar”, much like our “Advent calendars”.
These calendars mark DAY ONE on the actual anticipated day itself. Counting
backwards in anticipation would be like this:
Passover...day one ( in this case, a Thursday night)
Wednesday...day two
Tuesday....day three
Monday...day four
Sunday...day five
Saturday...day six (in perfect agreement with John 12:1)”
GE:
Everything fine,
unfortunately for “Passover...day one (
in this case, a Thursday night)”
Abib 9 : “Saturday...day six (in perfect agreement
with John 12:1)”
Abib 10 : “Sunday...day five / “on
the next day” “
Abib 11 : “Monday...day four”
Abib 12 : “Tuesday....day three”
Abib 13 : “Wednesday...day
two”
Abib 14 : “Passover...day one (in this case, a Thursday ....”— not “a Thursday night”, but a Wednesday
night and Thursday day : ‘the Fifth Day’ in Bible idiom. “Preparation
of the Passover” Jn19:14.
Abib 15 : “The 7 Day feast of
Unleavened Bread began at Sundown that evening” .... “in this case, a Thursday
night” being the beginning of the Sixth Day and “The Preparation which
is the Fore–Sabbath”, Friday. According to Jn19:31, “great day sabbath”.
Abib 16 : “The day after the sabbath (of passover) thou
shalt wave First Sheaf Offering Before the LORD.” Seventh Day Sabbath.
JX:
“That would make Sunday the 10th; Monday the 11th; Tuesday the 12th;
Wednesday the 13th; and Thursday the 14th of Nisan, the Crucifixion of Jesus
Christ, our Passover Lamb.”
GE:
Indeed! Why then have you
not noticed that 15th of Nisan must
have been “feast of Unleavened Bread
.... at Sundown that evening” of Thursday, the Fifth Day, ‘Friday’, starting? Another
day, and that impossibly we “Here”
can “have Mark calling 2 different days,
days of “preparation”. One the day before Jesus died, and one on the day that
Jesus died”!
JX:
“Yes, Jesus our Passover Lamb was crucified and died at 3:00 Thursday
afternoon, just as the High Priest slew the Passover Lamb. Jesus was laid in
His tomb before Sundown, still reckoning it to be Thursday. He was in the heart
of the earth for 3 days and 3 nights and rose gloriously on Easter morning,
Sunday morning.”
GE:
You are only repeating
your untruths based on nothing but presumption.
It is not true, but a lie,
1) that “Jesus
was laid in His tomb before Sundown .... Thursday afternoon”;
It is not true, but a lie,
2) that when “Jesus was laid in His tomb before Sundown”,
the Gospels are “still reckoning it to be Thursday”,
because Mark, Luke and
John expressly state, Friday beginning,
“that great day sabbath
.... The Preparation .... which is
the Fore–Sabbath .... evening
having come”,
Joseph began to undertake, and “by the Jews’
preparation (time)”, “mid–afternoon towards the Sabbath”, had finished.
Therefore, that “He rose on Easter morning, Sunday morning”,
is most blatant an untruth for the defence of which the Scriptures even are
fearlessly fiddled and diddled. Sunday–worship!
JX:
“The Synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark and Luke) present a time–sequence
that appears different from John’s. Why?”
GE:
There is no discrepancy;
they perfectly are in agreement. You ask “Why?”
knowing full well the question already, is faked.
JX:
“Mark’s Gospel reads:
“And the first day of Unleavened Bread, when they killed the Passover, His
disciples said unto Him, ‘Where wilt Thou that we go and prepare that Thou
mayest eat the Passover?’
Mark 14:12 “and they made ready the Passover” Mark 14:16
This 14th Chapter appears to be a contradiction of the other Gospel accounts,
especially John’s Gospel which parallels Christ’s crucifixion at the same time
that the Passover Lamb was being slain in the Temple. (John 19:14)
Since the Gospels cannot contradict one another, we must start with absolute
fact and then, by deduction, explain the reason for the apparent discrepancy.
GE:
See what I mean! You assert – and although you say it lastly,
you mean it firstly –, “the apparent discrepancy”, “explain the reason for the apparent discrepancy” .... which exists, “apparent(ly)”, and has an obvious “reason” that should only be “explain(ed)” by ‘deducement’. In that
way you do just the opposite of what you pretend to do. 1) ‘Especially
John’s Gospel contradicts the other Gospel accounts’; this is where you
start from. 2) the apparent discrepancy
has a “reason for” it. 3) You pretend to “explain” both “by deduction”. And you presumed everybody is going to accept
your word for it. Your methodology is
not what should be explained; the chronology of the passover events must be
explained.
Your conception of
contradiction is most strange and novel. The ages old pretence has been that
John is the Gospel that contradicts the Synoptists. You pose as though Mark “This 14th Chapter appears to be a
contradiction”, of the other three Gospels, especially that of John. You ask the question, “Why?”; and you give your reason why, “..... especially John’s Gospel which parallels Christ’s crucifixion at
the same time that the Passover Lamb was being slain in the
I would like to point out,
please,
1) Don’t the Gospels of Matthew and Luke and
especially Mark not also, ‘parallel
Christ’s crucifixion at the same time that the Passover Lamb was being slain in
the
They – especially Mark’s
Gospel – “with absolute fact”, do.
2) How do you, JX, ‘parallel’ “the time that the
Passover Lamb was being slain in the
Therefore, Where is your
pretended contradiction? The way you
have imagined your contradiction, there exists none between any Gospels. You do not see the usual – traditional – ‘contradiction’
that can be seen by the most ordinary reader when he reads the most ordinary
versions of the Gospels in specifically Mk14:12, Mt26:17 and Lk22:7,
Mt26:17, “Now the first
day of the feast of unleavened bread (having come)”;
Mk14:12, “And on the
first day of Unleavened Bread when they always killed the Passover”;
Lk22:7, “Then came the day of unleavened bread
when the passover must be killed”.
In my King James Version the
words “day” and “feast” are inverted in Matthew, where they are supplied
words. The idea of the “feast” as the
sabbath of the Feast of Passover of Abib 15 is also retained in Mark and Luke
through another supplied word, but which has not been inverted to indicate that
it is a supplied word. That word, is “bread”,
and since ‘bread’ is associated with the eating
of unleavened bread, together with the eating
of the passover sacrifice – that invariably occurred in the night part of the
day after the day upon which “they
always had to slay the passover
sacrifice” –, the three Scriptures, by
error, became associated with the feast sabbath of the passover or “high
day sabbath” of it (Jn19:31). Remove the ideas of ‘feast’ and ‘bread’ from
these Scriptures, because they do not exist in the text, and these Scriptures
are describing the same day, that of the sacrifice of the sacrifice and of the removal or absence of leaven, also a duty that stringently
had to be observed on the “first day” of passover, Abib 14. “Even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your
houses.” Ex12:15.
No discrepancies; no
contradictions left; no difficulty, no enigma to solve; just plain Old
Testament law that in every respect and unto all its once for all fulfilment
applied in the age, year, month, day and
hour and week of the crucifixion and death of Jesus Christ— something
worthy to be believed; something worthy unto the forgiveness of sins and the
salvation of one’s soul. Something worth faithful scrutiny, analysis, interpretation,
acknowledgment and acceptance.
JX:
“First of all, we have already established the fact that Christ rose on
Sunday.”
GE:
What Bacchiocchian backgammon!
JX:
“We also have already established the fact that according to His own words
(which out weighs any other witness) He was in the heart of the earth 3 days
and 3 nights. So in conclusion, we have already established the fact that
Christ was crucified on Thursday, before the Passover Meal took place
throughout all
GE:
Which confirms, and which
only can confirm, Christ’s resurrection on the Sabbath. If one can count to three and know the days
of the week he can understand it.
JX:
“We can only deduce that the Lord requested to share the Passover meal
with his disciples a day earlier, knowing that He would not be with them on the
morrow. This Wednesday then was their own particular day of preparation...their
singular evening of unleavened bread.”
GE:
I cannot understand how
you cannot understand that what you have said before, contradicts and denies
what you are now saying.
JX:
“..... We must always keep in mind that Our Lord is
also Lord of the Sabbath (Holy Day). Mark 2: 27, 28
Hezekiah himself recalculated the time of Passover due to unusual
circumstances. “and the thing pleased the king and all the congregation” 2
Chronicles 30:4 Our Lord and His
disciples were righteous; they were not legalists.
The disciples knew full well the malicious attempts of the chief priests,
scribes and elders, and they wouldn’t hesitate in the least to cooperate with a
more discreet seder.
This deduction is a fair estimate. For if Mark 14 is confusing, Mark 15 sets
the record straight.
GE:
Again you make an untrue
assumption, then ‘by deduction’ – by
false ‘deduction’ – apply your
baseless assumption to the obvious truth – ‘Mark
15’ – as though that obvious truth ‘sets
straight’ a crooked ‘record’ you
in ‘Mark 14’ falsely presumed.
It is a pity you ended
your disputation in this manner, JX. Nevertheless, thank you for the
opportunity to have answered you; I benefited greatly, and thank you, and God,
for it. I would have been the poorer in
the knowledge and understanding of the Gospel of Christ but for our
discussion.